An adolescent boy is admitted to the emergency department (ED) following a bee sting. He arrives with a body rash and 30 minutes later he becomes short of breath. The nurse obtains vital signs with a blood pressure of 90/52 mm Hg, heart rate 130 beats/minute, and respiratory rate 40 breaths/minute. The client is exhibiting clinical manifestations of which type of immune reaction?
Cell-mediated tovity
Autoimmune response
IgE response hypersensitivity
Type II hypersensitivity
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Cell-mediated hypersensitivity (Type IV) involves T-cells, causing delayed reactions like contact dermatitis, not acute symptoms like rash, hypotension, and dyspnea. Bee sting reactions are rapid, driven by IgE-mediated histamine release, making this immune mechanism incorrect for the client’s presentation.
Choice B reason: Autoimmune responses target self-antigens, as in lupus, not external allergens like bee venom. The client’s acute rash, hypotension, and respiratory distress indicate an allergic reaction, not autoimmunity, making this mechanism irrelevant to the anaphylactic response observed.
Choice C reason: IgE response hypersensitivity (Type I) causes anaphylaxis, as bee venom triggers IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation, releasing histamine. This leads to rash, hypotension, and bronchoconstriction, matching the client’s symptoms, making this the correct immune reaction for the acute, life-threatening presentation.
Choice D reason: Type II hypersensitivity involves antibody-mediated cytotoxicity, as in hemolytic anemia, not allergic reactions. Bee sting anaphylaxis results from IgE-driven histamine release, not cell destruction, making this mechanism incorrect for the client’s rapid-onset allergic symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Temporary use until pressure stabilizes is incorrect, as open-angle glaucoma is a chronic condition requiring ongoing intraocular pressure control. Eye drops, like beta-blockers, reduce aqueous humor production, but stopping them risks pressure spikes, leading to optic nerve damage and vision loss.
Choice B reason: Lifelong eye drop use is accurate, as open-angle glaucoma is a progressive disease where optic nerve damage is prevented by maintaining low intraocular pressure. Drops like prostaglandins increase aqueous outflow, requiring continuous use to prevent irreversible vision loss, making this the correct response.
Choice C reason: Using drops only during symptomatic episodes is incorrect, as glaucoma is often asymptomatic until advanced. Consistent eye drop use prevents pressure buildup, protecting the optic nerve. Symptomatic treatment fails to address chronic pressure elevation, risking progressive vision loss.
Choice D reason: Discontinuing drops once vision improves is incorrect, as vision improvement is not expected in glaucoma. Eye drops maintain intraocular pressure to slow disease progression, not reverse damage. Stopping treatment allows pressure to rise, accelerating optic nerve damage and vision loss.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Testing for Helicobacter pylori is irrelevant, as vomiting and anorexia 8 days post-laparotomy suggest postoperative complications like ileus or obstruction, not peptic ulcer disease. H. pylori causes gastritis, not acute surgical issues, making this action inappropriate for the client’s current presentation.
Choice B reason: Giving intravenous fluids is critical, as vomiting and refusal to eat post-laparotomy risk dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Fluids restore volume, stabilize hemodynamics, and support recovery from potential ileus or obstruction, addressing the client’s acute symptoms and preventing further deterioration.
Choice C reason: Inserting a rectal tube is inappropriate, as vomiting indicates upper gastrointestinal issues, not lower bowel obstruction. Post-laparotomy vomiting suggests ileus or adhesion, and rectal tubes do not address gastric or small bowel complications, making this action ineffective.
Choice D reason: Monitoring hemoglobin assesses blood loss, relevant post-laparotomy, but vomiting and anorexia prioritize fluid replacement to prevent dehydration. Hemoglobin checks are secondary, as fluid loss is the immediate threat, making IV fluids the more urgent intervention for stabilization.
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