An adult client with a closed head injury was admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) one hour ago following a motor vehicle collision. The client's telemetry displays normal sinus rhythm. After placing an intraventricular cannula for intracranial pressure monitoring, the healthcare provider (HCP) prescribes protocols for IV infusions of mannitol and dopamine. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?

Observe vital signs sequences as a way of assessing for Cushing's triad.

Evaluate hourly urinary output.

Monitor arterial blood pressure.

Assess intracranial pressure following intracranial transducer placement.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Observe vital signs sequences as a way of assessing for Cushing's triad. Cushing’s triad (hypertension with widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular respirations) is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). While monitoring for it is important, early recognition and direct ICP monitoring are more effective in preventing deterioration.
B. Evaluate hourly urinary output. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that can cause significant diuresis, requiring close monitoring of urine output to prevent dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. However, assessing ICP is the priority because increased ICP can cause brain herniation, which is life-threatening.
C. Monitor arterial blood pressure. Dopamine is a vasopressor used to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP), which is crucial in head injury management. While blood pressure monitoring is essential, directly assessing ICP ensures that treatment is effective in preventing secondary brain injury.
D. Assess intracranial pressure following intracranial transducer placement. The highest priority is monitoring ICP immediately after placement to detect dangerous elevations that could lead to herniation. The intraventricular catheter provides real-time pressure readings, guiding interventions like mannitol administration and blood pressure control to optimize cerebral perfusion and prevent worsening neurological damage.

Nursing Test Bank

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]

Explanation

A. Allow the family to touch and talk to the client. Family presence can provide emotional support for both the client and loved ones. Even though the client is sedated and has a low GCS, familiar voices and touch may reduce stress and anxiety. Allowing family interaction fosters comfort and connection during a critical time.
B. Reassess the client's vascular access. Maintaining secure and functional vascular access is essential for administering fluids, medications, and emergency interventions. Before transport, the nurse should confirm IV patency, ensure secure connections, and assess for signs of infiltration or malfunction. Trauma patients may require additional or larger bore IV access for fluid resuscitation or transfusion.
C. Assess neurological vital signs every 15 minutes. Frequent neurological assessments are crucial in head trauma patients with a low GCS to monitor for signs of worsening intracranial pressure, cerebral edema, or herniation. Changes in pupil response, motor function, or vital signs may indicate neurological deterioration requiring urgent intervention. Monitoring trends over time is necessary for early detection of complications.
D. Administer ophthalmic ointment. Clients with a low GCS often have impaired blinking, placing them at risk for corneal abrasions and dryness. Applying ophthalmic lubricant or artificial tears protects the cornea from injury and promotes eye health. Preventing exposure keratitis is essential in unconscious or sedated clients to avoid long-term ocular damage.
E. Apply soft bilateral wrist restraints for transport. Restraints are unnecessary because the client is sedated, intubated, and has a GCS of 6, meaning they cannot attempt self-extubation or interfere with care. Restraints should only be used if the client demonstrates a risk of harm. Standard transport protocols prioritize sedation and safety measures over restraints unless specifically required.

A. Hyperglycemia. B. Hypotension. C. Paralytic ileus and abdominal distention. D. Muscle twitching and digit numbness.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Hyperglycemia. While elevated blood glucose can occur in acute pancreatitis due to pancreatic inflammation impairing insulin secretion, it is not an electrolyte imbalance. The question specifically asks about electrolyte-related manifestations.
B. Hypotension. Hypotension in acute pancreatitis is often due to fluid shifts (third-spacing) and systemic inflammation, rather than a direct electrolyte imbalance. Though dehydration and electrolyte losses can contribute to hypotension, this is not the most specific sign of an electrolyte disturbance.
C. Paralytic ileus and abdominal distention. Hypokalemia can lead to paralytic ileus, but ileus and distention are also caused by peritoneal irritation, inflammation, and impaired motility due to pancreatitis itself. While potassium imbalance could contribute, this is not the most direct electrolyte-related symptom.
D. Muscle twitching and digit numbness. Hypocalcemia is a common electrolyte imbalance in acute pancreatitis, caused by fatty acid breakdown binding calcium, leading to saponification. This results in neuromuscular excitability, causing muscle twitching, paresthesia (numbness/tingling), and positive Chvostek’s or Trousseau’s signs. These symptoms are clear indicators of an electrolyte disturbance related to pancreatitis.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

An adult with head and facial injuries from a motor vehicle collision is fully immobilized and has a Glasgow coma score of 6. The client is intubated, sedated, and is being prepared for transfer to a regional trauma center. Which intervention(s) should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]

Explanation

The nurse identifies the collaborative problem of potential electrolyte imbalance in a client with acute pancreatitis. Which assessment finding should the nurse associate with an electrolyte imbalance related to acute pancreatitis?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client, who is 4 hours postoperative laparotomy, has rapidly increasing abdominal distention with elevated pulse and respiratory rates. The client's skin is cool and pale, and there is no change in the blood pressure. Which intervention should the nurse implement immediately?

A client who is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with acute decompensated heart failure is receiving a continuous infusion of milrinone via a subclavian venous catheter. Which action should the nurse take when preparing to administer the first dose of IV furosemide?

Based on this rhythm strip, which interpretation should the nurse make?

Exhibits Click to mark whether the actions are indicated, contraindicated, or nonessential for this client. Each row must have one option selected.

Twelve hours following orthopedic surgery on the right leg, the client begins to have acute chest pain and difficulty breathing. Which action should the nurse take first?

The healthcare provider (HCP) prescribes dopamine 2 mcg/kg/min IV for client who weighs 60 kg. The IV bag contains "Dopamine 400 mg in dextrose 5% in water (DW) 500 mL." The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hour? (Enter numerical value only.)

A client is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with sepsis and acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The client is orally intubated and mechanically ventilated. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care (POC)?