Exhibits
A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with multisystem organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS). The client is restless, febrile, and nauseated. Insulin is infusing at 5 units/hour per protocol to keep blood glucose less than 150 mg/dL (8.3 mmol/L). Dopamine is infusing at 5 mcg/kg/minute per protocol to keep mean arterial pressure (MAP) greater than 65 mm Hg. Serum blood glucose is 160 mg/dL and MAP is 66 mm Hg. The client is receiving oxygen at 50% via face mask and has an oxygen saturation of 92%. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Reference Range:
- Glucose [74 to 106 mg/dL (4.1 to 5.9 mmol/L)]
Administer famotidine 20 mg IV.
Titrate insulin infusion by 1 unit/hour.
Increase dopamine 2 mcg/kg.
Raise oxygen by 10 percent.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Administer famotidine 20 mg IV. Famotidine is a histamine-2 receptor antagonist used for stress ulcer prophylaxis in critically ill patients. While this medication may be beneficial, it is not the priority intervention based on the insulin protocol and the client's blood glucose level.
B. Titrate insulin infusion by 1 unit/hour. The client’s blood glucose is 160 mg/dL, which falls within the 150–199 mg/dL range according to the insulin protocol. The protocol directs the nurse to increase the insulin drip rate by 1 unit/hour to maintain blood glucose levels below 150 mg/dL. This is the most immediate and appropriate action.
C. Increase dopamine 2 mcg/kg. The client’s MAP is 66 mmHg, which meets the protocol goal of keeping MAP >65 mmHg. There is no indication for increasing dopamine at this time, as the blood pressure is already within the target range.
D. Raise oxygen by 10 percent. The client is on 50% FiO₂ via a face mask with an oxygen saturation of 92%, which is adequate oxygenation for a critically ill patient. Increasing FiO₂ unnecessarily may contribute to oxygen toxicity and is not required based on current oxygenation status.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","E","F"]
Explanation
A. White blood cell differential. Although infection is a common precipitating factor for DKA, an elevated WBC count is common in DKA due to stress, dehydration, and inflammation rather than infection itself. While a WBC differential may be done if infection is suspected, it is not a primary test for DKA management.
B. Hemoglobin A1C. Hemoglobin A1C (HbA1c) reflects long-term glucose control (past 2-3 months) but does not provide immediate information about the current metabolic status or severity of DKA. While it may be useful in assessing overall diabetes management, it is not essential for acute DKA treatment.
C. Serum electrolytes. Patients with DKA experience significant electrolyte imbalances, particularly potassium depletion due to osmotic diuresis and insulin deficiency. Monitoring serum sodium, potassium, and bicarbonate is crucial for guiding fluid and electrolyte replacement therapy. Potassium levels may appear normal or high initially due to acidosis but typically drop with insulin administration.
D. Urine culture. A urine culture is only indicated if a urinary tract infection (UTI) is suspected as a trigger for DKA. However, routine urine culture is not required in every case of DKA unless there are symptoms of infection such as fever, dysuria, or pyuria.
E. Anion gap. DKA is a form of high anion gap metabolic acidosis, caused by the accumulation of ketones. The anion gap (AG) is calculated as (Na⁺ - [Cl⁻ + HCO₃⁻]), with a value >12 mEq/L indicating metabolic acidosis. Monitoring the anion gap helps assess the severity of acidosis and guide treatment progress, as a decreasing anion gap suggests resolution of ketosis.
F. Urine ketones. Urine ketone testing helps confirm the presence of ketoacidosis, particularly in the initial stages of DKA diagnosis. While serum beta-hydroxybutyrate is a more accurate indicator of ketone levels, urine ketones remain useful for initial screening and monitoring treatment response as they decrease with appropriate management.
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"C"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"B"}}
Explanation
- Increase the fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO₂). The client has severe COVID pneumonia and is on mechanical ventilation with high inspiratory pressures, suggesting acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Increasing FiO₂ is indicated if oxygenation is inadequate (e.g., low PaO₂ or SpO₂). However, oxygen toxicity should be avoided, so adjustments should be made based on arterial blood gases (ABGs) and oxygen saturation.
- Collect equipment for a needle aspiration. Needle aspiration is typically used for pneumothorax management, but there is no mention of clinical signs such as sudden hypotension, absent breath sounds, or tracheal deviation. While ventilated COVID-19 patients are at risk for barotrauma, this procedure is not justified without evidence of pneumothorax.
- Replace the ventilator. There is no indication that the ventilator is malfunctioning or that the settings are inappropriate. If ventilation issues arise (e.g., high plateau pressures, auto-PEEP, or ventilator asynchrony), adjustments to settings, sedation, or lung-protective strategies should be considered before replacing the ventilator.
- Measure the nasogastric tube output. The client is intubated and sedated, meaning they cannot protect their airway or tolerate oral intake. A nasogastric (NG) tube is commonly placed for gastric decompression and feeding. Monitoring NG output is essential to assess for gastrointestinal bleeding, ileus, or high residual volumes, which can affect feeding tolerance.
- Place the client in Trendelenburg. The Trendelenburg position increases the risk of aspiration, impairs lung expansion, and worsens ventilation-perfusion mismatch, especially in ARDS patients. Instead, prone positioning is often preferred in severe COVID pneumonia to improve oxygenation and alveolar recruitment.
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