An adult woman who had gastric bypass surgery two weeks ago is admitted because she is exhibiting signs of anastomosis leakage. Her vital signs are: temperature 100°F (37.8°C), blood pressure 98/50 mm Hg, heart rate 135 beats/minute, and respiratory rate 24 breaths/minute. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?
Replace fluids intravenously based on intake and output.
Record the amount of daily wound drainage.
Assess skin condition and turgor for breakdown.
Turn every 2 hours around the clock from side-to-side.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: This is the correct answer because the client's vital signs indicate that she is hypovolemic and dehydrated due to the leakage of gastric contents from the anastomosis site. The nurse should replace fluids intravenously to prevent shock and electrolyte imbalance.
Choice B Reason: Recording the amount of daily wound drainage is important but not the most important intervention for this client because it does not address the immediate problem of fluid loss and hypovolemia. The nurse should monitor the wound drainage for signs of infection and report any changes to the physician.
Choice C Reason: Assessing skin condition and turgor for breakdown is important but not the most important intervention for this client because it does not address the immediate problem of fluid loss and hypovolemia. The nurse should assess the skin for signs of dehydration and pressure ulcers and provide appropriate skin care.
Choice D Reason: Turning every 2 hours around the clock from side-to-side is important but not the most important intervention for this client because it does not address the immediate problem of fluid loss and hypovolemia. The nurse should turn the client to prevent complications such as pneumonia and atelectasis but also consider the client's comfort and pain level.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This client may need another dose of hydromorphone if the pain is not relieved by the previous one. A PN can administer this medication under the supervision of a RN and monitor the client's response.
Choice B Reason: This client's vital signs are within normal limits and indicate that the morphine is effective and not causing respiratory depression. A PN can assess and document the client's vital signs and pain level.
Choice C Reason: This is the correct answer because this client has acute and severe pain that may require immediate intervention and reassessment. An RN can evaluate the cause and severity of the pain, administer additional analgesics as prescribed, and implement nonpharmacological measures to relieve the pain.
Choice D Reason: This client has chronic and stable pain that is managed by a fentanyl patch. A PN can replace the patch according to the schedule and instructions provided by the RN.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This is not the first priority because it does not address the client's immediate needs. The nurse should obtain the client's legal records for power of attorney, but this can be done later.
Choice B Reason: This is a good action because it helps relieve the client's pain and discomfort. The nurse should give analgesic medications as needed (PRN), but this is not enough to meet the client's holistic needs.
Choice C Reason: This is not an appropriate action because it may cause harm to the client. The nurse should not discontinue the intravenous infusion without a valid reason and a healthcare provider's order.
Choice D Reason: This is the best action because it respects the client's wishes and provides him with quality end-of-life care. The nurse should ask the palliative care team to speak with the client and offer him emotional, spiritual, and physical support.
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