An older adult client with a history of heart failure (HF) is brought to the clinic by a family member. Which finding(s) confirm to the nurse that the client is experiencing an exacerbation of the HF? Select all that apply.
Jugular venous distension.
Peripheral edema.
Dyspnea.
Intercostal retractions.
Headaches.
Correct Answer : A,B,C
Choice A Reason:
Jugular venous distension is correct. Jugular venous distension is a common sign of fluid overload and increased central venous pressure, which occur during exacerbations of heart failure. It indicates impaired cardiac function and elevated systemic venous pressure.
Choice B Reason:
Peripheral edema is correct. Peripheral edema, particularly in the lower extremities, is a classic manifestation of fluid retention and congestion in heart failure exacerbations. It results from increased capillary hydrostatic pressure and impaired fluid reabsorption by the kidneys.
Choice C Reason:
Dyspnea is correct. Dyspnea, or shortness of breath, is a hallmark symptom of heart failure exacerbations. It occurs due to pulmonary congestion resulting from fluid accumulation in the lungs, impairing gas exchange and leading to difficulty breathing.
Choice D Reason:
Intercostal retraction is not typically associated with exacerbations of heart failure. Intercostal retractions indicate increased work of breathing and respiratory distress, which may occur in conditions such as severe respiratory infections or asthma exacerbations, but are not specific to heart failure exacerbations.
Choice E Reason:
Headaches are not typically associated with exacerbations of heart failure. Headaches can have various causes, including tension, migraines, or sinus congestion, but they are not commonly observed as a direct manifestation of heart failure exacerbations.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
History of a fractured patella is incorrect. While a history of a fractured patella may lead to some degree of crepitation in the knee joint, especially if there was damage to the articular surfaces during the injury, it is less likely to cause widespread crepitation with joint movement. Crepitation associated with a fractured patella would typically be localized to the site of injury rather than throughout the joint.
Choice B Reason:
Knee arthroplasty surgery is incorrect. Knee arthroplasty surgery involves the replacement of a damaged knee joint with an artificial prosthesis. While crepitation can occur in some cases following knee arthroplasty, it is less likely to be the cause of crepitation observed in this scenario, especially if the client's knee arthroplasty was successful and without complications.
Choice C Reason:
Degenerative disease is correct. Degenerative disease of the knee joint, such as osteoarthritis, is a common cause of crepitation during joint movement. Osteoarthritis is characterized by the breakdown of cartilage in the joints, leading to friction between bones and resulting in crepitus. This condition is often associated with aging, repetitive stress on the joints, or underlying joint abnormalities.
Choice D Reason:
Needle aspiration of the synovial space is incorrect. Needle aspiration of the synovial space is a procedure performed to remove excess fluid or to obtain a sample of synovial fluid for diagnostic purposes. While this procedure may be performed for various reasons, it is not directly associated with crepitation in the knee joint.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Pupils equal, round, reacts to light, and accommodation (PERLA) is inappropriate. While PERLA includes accommodation, which involves constriction of the pupils when focusing on a near object, accommodation was not specifically assessed or mentioned in the scenario. Therefore, it would be inaccurate to include it in the documentation based solely on the information provided.
Choice B Reason:
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of 15 is inappropriate. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses the level of consciousness based on eye, verbal, and motor responses. However, the scenario does not provide information about the client's verbal or motor responses, so using the GCS score of 15 would not accurately reflect the findings described in the assessment of the pupils.
Choice C Reason:
Pupils equal, round, reacts to light (PERRL) is appropriate. This notation describes the key observations made during the assessment of the client's pupils. "PERRL" stands for Pupils Equal, Round, and Reactive to Light. In the given scenario, both pupils are equal in size, round, and demonstrate a brisk response to light, indicating normal pupillary function.
Choice D Reason:
Neurological status intact is inappropriate. While the assessment findings suggest normal pupillary function, documenting "neurological status intact" is a broader statement that encompasses various aspects of neurological function beyond just pupillary assessment. It may be accurate to describe the pupillary findings within the context of a broader neurological assessment, but it does not specifically address the pupil findings as described in the scenario. Therefore, option C is the most appropriate notation for documenting the assessment findings of the pupils.
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