An older adult client with hypertension has recently been prescribed a beta-adrenergic blocker and a thiazide diuretic. When educating the client about preventing and managing adverse effects, the nurse will provide which instruction?
"Change positions slowly to prevent lightheadedness or dizziness."
"Reduce your fluid intake initially, to prevent excessive urination."
"Identify and eliminate any high-potassium foods from your diet."
"Expect your blood pressure to increase for several days before it begins to decrease."
The Correct Answer is A
A. Changing positions slowly is critical for older adults taking beta-adrenergic blockers and diuretics to prevent orthostatic hypotension, which can lead to lightheadedness or dizziness.
B. Reducing fluid intake is not advisable, as thiazide diuretics can lead to dehydration, and maintaining adequate fluid intake is essential for overall health and to avoid excessive urinary output.
C. Identifying and eliminating high-potassium foods is unnecessary unless there is a specific indication of hyperkalemia, particularly since thiazide diuretics do not typically cause potassium retention, and beta-blockers are not potassium-specific.
D. Expecting blood pressure to increase before it decreases is misleading; clients should see a gradual reduction in blood pressure with proper medication adherence, and any sudden increases should be reported.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Performing a blood sugar analysis is important, but the immediate symptoms indicate hypoglycemia, and rapid treatment is necessary before confirming blood sugar levels.
B. Having the client drink a glass of orange juice provides a quick source of glucose to counteract hypoglycemia, which is the most appropriate initial response to address the client's symptoms.
C. Administering 1 ampule of 50% dextrose intravenously is an appropriate intervention for severe hypoglycemia but is not the initial step for a client who can still take oral carbohydrates.
D. Administering insulin would worsen the client's condition by lowering blood sugar levels further, which is not indicated in this scenario.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The combination of nitroglycerin and sildenafil can lead to severe hypotension due to the vasodilatory effects of both medications. This is the most critical adverse reaction the nurse should anticipate.
B. Bradycardia is not a direct effect of this combination; rather, hypotension is a more significant concern.
C. Chest pain may occur if hypotension leads to inadequate perfusion, but it is not a direct adverse effect of the drug interaction.
D. Nausea can occur with various medications, but it is not specifically linked to the interaction between nitroglycerin and sildenafil.
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