Before leaving the room of a confused client, the nurse notes that a half-bow knot was used to attach the client's wrist restraints to the movable portion of the client's bed frame. What action should the nurse take before leaving the room?
Tie the knot with a double turn or square knot.
Ensure that the restraints are snug against the client's wrists.
Move the ties so the restraints are secured to the side rails.
Ensure that the knot can be quickly released.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A: A double turn or square knot is not recommended because it is not a quick-release knot, which is necessary for patient safety in case of an emergency
Choice B: While restraints need to be secure, they should not be snug against the client's wrists. There should be enough space to fit two fingers between the restraint and the wrist to prevent circulation issues.
Choice C: Ties should not be secured to side rails as this can cause injury if the rails are moved. Instead, they should be attached to the movable part of the bed frame.
Choice D: This is the correct action. A half-bow knot is a type of quick-release knot, which is essential for the safety and quick release of the patient if needed
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect- While bedtime monitoring is important, the frequency described in this choice is not consistent with FSBG monitoring before meals.
B) Correct- Performing FSBG monitoring before each meal helps the client track her blood glucose levels before consuming food, allowing her to adjust her diet or insulin regimen if necessary.
C) Incorrect- Monitoring every two hours may be excessive and not necessary for managing gestational diabetes.
D) Incorrect- Monitoring during the night is important for glycemic control, but it doesn't specifically address the need to monitor before meals.

Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect - The APTT value being two times the control value indicates that the client's anticoagulation is within the therapeutic range. There is no need to increase the warfarin dose.
B) Correct - With the APTT value within the target range and the PT and INR values also normal, the nurse should continue the same dose of warfarin and withhold the heparin.
C) Incorrect - Decreasing the heparin dose is not indicated, as the client's APTT is already within the therapeutic range.
D) Incorrect - Increasing the heparin dose and decreasing the warfarin dose is not necessary, as the client's anticoagulation levels are appropriate.
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