During a sexual history, the client states that she has had multiple sex partners. Which statement by the nurse is most correct?

"What do you do to prevent sexually transmitted infections?".

"The chance of acquiring a sexually transmitted infection increases with multiple sex partners.".

"It is hard to find a good partner these days.".

"You are putting yourself at risk when you have multiple sex partners.".

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

"The chance of acquiring a sexually transmitted infection increases with multiple sex partners." This response is appropriate and accurate because having multiple sex partners increases the risk of acquiring sexually transmitted infections. The nurse's response can help educate the client and encourage safer sexual practices.

Choice A is incorrect because it assumes the client already practices safe sex.

choice C is not relevant to the conversation.

Choice D is not necessarily incorrect, but it does not provide as much information or education to the client as choice B does.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

cryptorchidism as an infant. Cryptorchidism, or undescended testicles, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer. During fetal development, the testicles form in the abdomen and descend into the scrotum before birth. Failure of one or both testicles to descend into the scrotum can increase the risk of testicular cancer later in life. Therefore, a history of cryptorchidism as an infant is the most important assessment finding to identify clients at higher risk of developing testicular cancer.

Choice A, previous sexually transmitted infection (STI), is incorrect because although STIs can increase the risk of certain types of cancer, they are not a significant risk factor for testicular cancer.

Choice C, low sperm count, is incorrect because although low sperm count can be associated with testicular cancer, it is not a reliable indicator for determining a higher risk for testicular cancer. Low sperm count may also be caused by various other factors, such as hormonal imbalances, infections, varicocele, and genetic abnormalities. While it is important to monitor and treat low sperm count, it is not a definitive indicator of testicular cancer risk.

A. Bone radiographs. B. Glucose tolerance test in combination with a Growth hormone measurement. C. Growth hormone levels. D. A serum glucose level.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Glucose tolerance test in combination with a Growth hormone measurement. Acromegaly is a condition in which there is an excess of growth hormone (GH) production by the anterior pituitary gland, resulting in abnormal growth of bones and tissues in the body. The definitive diagnostic test for acromegaly involves a glucose tolerance test combined with a measurement of GH levels. During the test, the client will be given a dose of glucose, and the GH levels will be measured before and after the glucose is given. In acromegaly, the GH levels remain elevated even after glucose administration.

Choice A, bone radiographs, may show the enlarged bones associated with acromegaly, but it is not the definitive diagnostic test for the condition.

Choice C, growth hormone levels, is not specific enough for diagnosing acromegaly, as elevated GH levels can occur in other conditions as well.

Choice D, a serum glucose level, is not specific for acromegaly, as the glucose level may be normal in clients with the condition.

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During a sexual history, the client states that she has had multiple sex partners. Which statement by the nurse is most correct?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which assessment finding is most important in determining which client has a higher risk for developing testicular cancer?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client is suspected of having acromegaly. What definitive diagnostic testing is the most reliable for confirming acromegaly?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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