During which phase of the nurse-patient relationship can the nurse anticipate that the patient's identified issues will be explored and resolved?
Working.
Preorientation.
Orientation.
Termination.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
The working phase is the central phase of the therapeutic relationship, dedicated to problem identification, exploration of stressors, and the development and testing of new coping mechanisms. It is during this phase that the patient's identified issues are intensely explored and resolved as the nurse and patient work collaboratively towards achieving established goals.
Choice B rationale
The preorientation phase occurs before the first face-to-face encounter. The nurse's activities involve data gathering and self-assessment, such as reviewing the patient's chart, understanding the clinical context, and examining their own feelings, to prepare for the interaction. No direct patient issues are explored or resolved here.
Choice C rationale
The orientation phase is the initial period focused on establishing rapport, clarifying roles, setting goals, and establishing a contract for the relationship. While issues are identified, the in-depth work of exploring and resolving those issues has not yet begun; the foundation is merely being laid.
Choice D rationale
The termination phase is the final stage, focusing on summarizing goals achieved, reviewing the experience, and preparing for separation. The primary goal is to conclude the relationship therapeutically and ensure the patient can maintain gains, not to introduce or resolve new major issues.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Inadequacy pertains to a lack of sufficiency or quality regarding a statement's content or detail to convey a full idea. While the statement "My marriage is just great. My spouse and I always agree" might lack depth, the primary concern is the disparity between the verbal and non-verbal communication, suggesting internal conflict, rather than mere insufficiency of descriptive detail. The non-verbal cues overshadow content.
Choice B rationale
Inconsistency describes a conflict between different elements of communication, specifically here the spoken word and the observed body language. The client's verbal declaration of perfect agreement contrasts sharply with the continuous, agitated non-verbal behaviors (foot movement, button twirling), indicating underlying anxiety, psychological distress, or internal tension that contradicts the seemingly idyllic verbal message. This non-verbal leakage suggests the statement is not truthful.
Choice C rationale
Clarity refers to the ease of understanding the manifest content of the verbal message. The client's statement about the marriage being "just great" and always agreeing is grammatically clear and easily understood at a literal level. However, the nurse's observation of the non-verbal behavior suggests that the meaning or truthfulness of the statement is compromised by internal conflict.
Choice D rationale
Distortion implies a misrepresentation or alteration of reality, potentially stemming from a cognitive process or defense mechanism. While the client might be distorting the truth of their marriage, the nurse's direct observation reveals an immediate, simultaneous inconsistency between the two forms of communication, making inconsistency the more direct and observable conclusion regarding the communication dynamic itself.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Anticholinergic medications primarily block acetylcholine receptors, commonly leading to side effects like dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. They do not typically cause hyperprolactinemia-related effects such as gynecomastia (male breast enlargement), amenorrhea (absence of menstruation), or galactorrhea (milky discharge).
Choice B rationale
First-generation (conventional) antipsychotics, like haloperidol, exert a potent Dopamine-2 receptor antagonism in the tuberoinfundibular pathway. This blockade lifts the dopaminergic inhibition on prolactin release from the anterior pituitary, resulting in hyperprolactinemia, which is the direct cause of gynecomastia, amenorrhea, and galactorrhea.
Choice C rationale
Second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics also block D2 receptors but often have a broader receptor profile. While some (like risperidone) can cause hyperprolactinemia, others are prolactin-sparing or cause it less frequently or severely than the first-generation agents.
Choice D rationale
Third-generation antipsychotics, such as aripiprazole, are often dopamine system stabilizers (partial agonists). They are less likely to cause significant D2 blockade and often have a lower risk of inducing hyperprolactinemia and the associated endocrine side effects compared to both first- and some second-generation agents.
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