Which imaging technique can provide information about brain function?
Skull radiograph.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan.
Positron emission tomography (PET) scan.
Computed tomography (CT) scan.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
A skull radiograph (X-ray) is a two-dimensional imaging technique that primarily visualizes bone structure and density, which is useful for identifying fractures, calcification, or foreign objects. It provides no information on the metabolic activity or blood flow of brain tissue, which are the biological substrates of brain function.
Choice B rationale
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) uses strong magnetic fields and radio waves to generate detailed anatomical images of soft tissues, including the brain. It provides excellent structural resolution (detecting tumors or lesions) but, in its standard form, offers limited direct, quantitative data on real-time cellular energy consumption or neurotransmitter activity, which characterize function.
Choice C rationale
Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scan is a nuclear medicine technique that uses a small amount of a radioactive tracer, such as fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG), to measure metabolic processes like glucose metabolism and regional cerebral blood flow. Since glucose is the brain's primary energy source, areas of higher uptake indicate greater neuronal activity, thus providing crucial functional information.
Choice D rationale
A Computed Tomography (CT) scan uses X-rays from multiple angles to create cross-sectional images of the body. It provides detailed structural information (e.g., hemorrhage, edema, atrophy) but, similar to MRI, does not offer direct, specific quantification of ongoing, real-time metabolic rate or neurotransmitter release, which are hallmarks of brain function.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Quaternary prevention is a relatively newer concept focused on protecting patients from medical interventions that are likely to cause harm. It involves identifying patients at risk of overmedicalization or unnecessary diagnostic or therapeutic procedures. This level of prevention is not directly applicable to the intervention stage for active suicidal tendencies.
Choice B rationale
Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and prompt treatment of a condition to limit disability and prevent severe progression. For a patient with major depression and active suicidal tendencies, the intervention (hospitalization, crisis intervention, initiation of pharmacotherapy) represents a critical effort to rapidly treat the acute phase of the illness, thus preventing suicide, which is a severe outcome.
Choice C rationale
Tertiary prevention aims to reduce the long-term consequences or disability of a chronic or already established disease. For major depression, tertiary prevention would include rehabilitation, ongoing support groups, and maintenance medication to prevent relapse and maximize functioning after the acute crisis has been resolved.
Choice D rationale
Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it ever occurs. This would include universal mental health education, stress management programs, or screenings for at-risk populations before they develop major depression or suicidal ideation. It is not appropriate for an actively suicidal patient.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Dismissing the friend and relying solely on a primary care provider (PCP) is inefficient and potentially dangerous in an emergency setting. The PCP may not be immediately available, and the friend often possesses critical, time-sensitive information regarding the client's baseline mental status, recent behavior, or potential ingestion of substances which is invaluable for immediate triage and stabilization in the emergency room.
Choice B rationale
Accepting the friend's information is the appropriate action, as this is consistent with the standard of care in an emergency where the client is incapacitated and unable to provide a coherent history. The principle of beneficence mandates gathering all available relevant data to protect the client's well-being. Confidentiality laws permit disclosure for treatment when the patient is unable to communicate due to a medical emergency.
Choice C rationale
Refusing information due to confidentiality concerns is an incorrect application of HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act). When a client's medical condition prevents them from making decisions or the situation is an emergency, the law allows the sharing of information with family or close associates involved in their care to facilitate prompt and effective treatment, prioritizing the client's immediate health.
Choice D rationale
Requiring a signed release from a client who is currently unable to provide a coherent history and demonstrate decision-making capacity is an ethical and practical impossibility. Informed consent, including releases, necessitates cognitive ability. Delaying the acquisition of critical history while waiting for the client to become coherent could lead to detrimental delays in diagnosis and potentially life-saving emergency medical interventions
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
