In educating clients about ovarian cancer, the nurse emphasizes death rates for ovarian cancer are high because:
ovarian cancer occurs primarily among women over age 70 that also have other complicating health problems.
the causative cancer cell is resistant to chemotherapy or radiation.
there are no obvious symptoms or problems during the early stages of this disorder.
radiation therapy is ineffective because the ovaries are located so deep within the pelvis.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Many women diagnosed with ovarian cancer are indeed older, but the presence of other health problems is not a primary factor in explaining the high death rates. The key issue is more related to late- stage diagnosis rather than age alone.
B. While some ovarian cancer cells can develop resistance to treatment, it is not universally true for all cases. The high mortality rate is more often due to the late stage at which the cancer is diagnosed rather than inherent resistance to treatment. Thus, this option does not fully explain the high death rates.
C. Ovarian cancer often presents with vague symptoms that can be easily overlooked in the early stages, such as bloating, abdominal discomfort, or changes in bowel habits. As a result, many women do not receive a diagnosis until the cancer has progressed to a more advanced stage, contributing significantly to the high mortality rates associated with the disease.
D. While it is true that the ovaries are located deep in the pelvis, the main treatment for ovarian cancer typically involves surgery and chemotherapy rather than radiation therapy. Radiation is not a primary treatment for this cancer type, and this statement does not accurately reflect why the death rates are high.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. After intravesical therapy, there may be recommendations to avoid sexual activity for a certain period (often 24 hours) to prevent exposure to the medication by a partner. However, the specifics can vary based on the medication used. Twelve hours might not be sufficient depending on the protocol.
B. Self-catheterization is not routinely required unless there is a specific reason (e.g., urinary retention or difficulty voiding). This statement is not relevant to the therapy itself.
C. Urinating in a sitting position can help ensure more complete emptying of the bladder and can be safer, particularly for women. It also may minimize contact with any residual medication in the bladder, which can be a consideration post-infusion.
D. Patients are usually advised to avoid excessive fluid intake immediately before the infusion to prevent bladder distention during the treatment.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots. While it may be prescribed for certain patients at risk for stroke, it is not typically the first-line medication for managing TIA or hyperlipidemia. It is more often used in patients with specific types of atrial fibrillation or mechanical heart valves.
B. Simethicone is an anti-foaming agent used to relieve gas and bloating. It does not have any role in managing hyperlipidemia or preventing strokes. Thus, this option is not relevant to the client's condition.
C. Simvastatin is a statin medication used to lower cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events, including stroke. For a client with hyperlipidemia and a history of TIA, simvastatin would be an appropriate medication to help manage cholesterol and decrease the risk of future ischemic events.
D. Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin used for anticoagulation, often in the context of deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. It may not be the first choice for TIA management. While it has its uses in preventing clot formation, it is not the standard treatment for a patient who has had a TIA.
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