The nurse is assessing a post-op thyroidectomy patient for bleeding. Which finding would indicate bleeding at the surgical site?
Complaints of pain at the incision
Increased blood pressure
Decreased white blood cell count
Presence of blood on the pillow behind the patient
The Correct Answer is D
A. While pain can occur post-operatively and may be a sign of complications, it is not a direct indicator of bleeding. Pain can result from normal healing, surgical trauma, or other complications, but by itself, it does not specifically point to bleeding at the surgical site.
B. An increased blood pressure might not necessarily indicate bleeding. In some cases, blood pressure may increase due to pain, anxiety, or other factors. However, a significant drop in blood pressure would be more indicative of bleeding, especially in conjunction with other symptoms.
C. A decreased white blood cell count (leukopenia) is not typically associated with bleeding at the surgical site. In fact, following surgery, one might expect the white blood cell count to be normal or slightly elevated due to the body’s response to surgery.
D. This finding is indicative of bleeding at the surgical site. Blood on the pillow would suggest that there is active bleeding that has escaped from the surgical site, which is a significant concern that requires immediate assessment and intervention.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. CA-125 is primarily associated with ovarian cancer and is not a relevant tumor marker for testicular cancer. Serum ceruloplasmin is a copper-carrying protein that can be elevated in various conditions, but it is not specific for testicular cancer. Therefore, this option is not appropriate.
B. Both hCG and AFP are tumor markers specifically associated with testicular cancer. Elevated levels of these markers can indicate the presence of non-seminomatous testicular tumors. Monitoring these markers is essential for diagnosis, assessing treatment response, and detecting recurrence.
C. EPO is involved in red blood cell production and is not a tumor marker for testicular cancer. CEA is primarily associated with colorectal cancer and some other malignancies, but it is not specific for testicular cancer.
D. PSA is a tumor marker associated with prostate cancer, not testicular cancer. While hCG is relevant for testicular cancer, the inclusion of PSA makes this option inappropriate for a client with testicular cancer.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. These are behavioral changes that may occur after a stroke, but they are not directly related to motor loss.
B. Hemiparesis is weakness on one side of the body, but in this case, the client is experiencing motor loss on the right side. Apraxia is the inability to perform purposeful movements, which can also occur after a stroke, but it is not a direct manifestation of motor loss.
C. Homonymous hemianopia is the loss of vision in half of the visual field on the same side as the stroke. Diplopia is double vision. While these are both common symptoms of stroke, they are not related to motor loss.
D. A left-sided stroke typically results in motor loss on the right side of the body. This is because the left side of the brain controls the right side of the body. Additionally, ataxia, which is a lack of coordination, is a common symptom of stroke.
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