In providing care to a patient who sustained left sided 10th through 12th rib fractures, the nurse notes Kehr's Cullen's and Gray Turner's signs during assessment. Which abdominal organ is most likely to be affected by this trauma?
Intestines
Liver
Spleen
Stomach
The Correct Answer is C
A) Intestines:
While abdominal trauma can affect the intestines, Kehr's sign, Cullen's sign, and Gray Turner's sign are more commonly associated with damage to the spleen rather than the intestines. Kehr's sign, in particular, is a hallmark of splenic injury, with pain referred to the left shoulder due to diaphragmatic irritation from blood in the peritoneum.
B) Liver:
Liver injuries often present with right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and elevated liver enzymes. While liver injuries can cause internal bleeding, Cullen's and Gray Turner's signs are more closely associated with retroperitoneal bleeding from the spleen rather than liver injuries. Kehr's sign, which is left-sided shoulder pain, would not typically indicate a liver injury.
C) Spleen:
The spleen is the most likely abdominal organ affected in this case due to the left-sided rib fractures. When the spleen is injured (often as a result of blunt trauma), it can cause intraperitoneal hemorrhage. This bleeding can irritate the diaphragm, leading to Kehr's sign, which presents as left shoulder pain. Additionally, Cullen's sign (periumbilical bruising) and Gray Turner's sign (flank bruising) are indicative of retroperitoneal bleeding, which can occur with splenic rupture or laceration.
D) Stomach:
While stomach injuries can occur with blunt abdominal trauma, they are less likely to cause the signs and symptoms seen in this patient (Kehr's, Cullen's, and Gray Turner's signs). Stomach trauma typically leads to pain and potential perforation, but it doesn't often cause the peritoneal bleeding patterns seen with splenic injuries.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Ondansetron and Metoclopramide:
Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, and Metoclopramide is a medication that promotes gastric emptying and is often used to treat nausea and gastroesophageal reflux. Neither of these medications are typically associated with ototoxicity. Ototoxicity is more commonly seen with medications that affect the inner ear or auditory pathways, particularly those that are used in high doses or over extended periods.
B) Aspirin and ibuprofen:
Both aspirin (a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, NSAID) and ibuprofen are associated with ototoxicity, especially when used in high doses or over prolonged periods. Ototoxicity from NSAIDs can result in symptoms such as tinnitus (ringing in the ears) or even hearing loss. This occurs due to their impact on the cochlea and auditory nerve.
C) Metoprolol and Furosemide:
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used for managing hypertension, heart failure, and other cardiovascular conditions, and Furosemide is a diuretic often used to treat conditions such as heart failure and edema. Neither of these drugs is typically associated with ototoxicity. However, high doses of furosemide, particularly when given rapidly or intravenously, may be associated with transient hearing loss.
D) Pantoprazole and Docusate Sodium:
Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) used to treat gastrointestinal issues like acid reflux and ulcers. Docusate sodium is a stool softener used to treat constipation. Neither of these medications is known to cause ototoxicity. These drugs generally do not affect hearing or the auditory system.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) CD4 count of less than 200 cells/uL, and new diagnosis of pneumocystis pneumonia:
A CD4 count of less than 200 cells/uL and the diagnosis of a severe opportunistic infection, such as pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP), are major criteria for the diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). AIDS is the final stage of HIV infection, where the immune system is severely compromised, and the individual is highly susceptible to opportunistic infections like PCP, tuberculosis, and others. The CD4 count, which measures the number of immune system cells (specifically T-helper cells), is used to monitor disease progression, with values below 200 cells/uL indicating a diagnosis of AIDS.
B) CD4 count of 1200 cells/uL and a new diagnosis of hepatitis A:
While hepatitis A is an important condition that should be managed, it is not an opportunistic infection associated with AIDS. A CD4 count of 1200 cells/uL is within the normal range (500-1800 cells/uL), indicating that the immune system is not severely compromised.
C) Low grade fever with the diagnosis of influenza A:
A low-grade fever and a diagnosis of influenza A do not indicate AIDS. Influenza is a viral infection that can affect both individuals with and without HIV. It is common to experience flu-like symptoms in the early stages of HIV infection, but the presence of a fever and influenza does not confirm AIDS. A low-grade fever is also not specific to AIDS or opportunistic infections.
D) New atopic dermatitis and a white blood count of 11 million/mm³:
Atopic dermatitis is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that is not specifically associated with HIV or AIDS. The white blood cell (WBC) count of 11 million/mm³ is elevated, but this alone does not confirm a diagnosis of AIDS. Elevated WBC counts can occur with various conditions, including infections and allergic reactions, but they are not a diagnostic feature of AIDS.
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