The nurse is providing education to the client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) about baclofen. What statement made by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client understood the education? The client states ‘’I will
take this medication as needed for pain"
stop the medication if experience dry mouth.
taper this medication off over 1-2 weeks.
feel an increase in energy with this medication.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Take this medication as needed for pain:
Baclofen is a muscle relaxant typically prescribed for managing spasticity associated with multiple sclerosis (MS), rather than for pain. It should be taken as prescribed, typically on a scheduled basis rather than on an as-needed basis for pain. Misunderstanding this could lead to improper use of the medication and ineffective symptom management.
B) Stop the medication if I experience dry mouth:
Dry mouth is a potential side effect of baclofen, but it should not be the reason to stop the medication abruptly. Stopping baclofen suddenly can result in withdrawal symptoms and could potentially worsen spasticity. If dry mouth or other side effects are bothersome, the client should consult the healthcare provider for management options rather than discontinuing the medication abruptly.
C) Taper this medication off over 1-2 weeks:
This statement demonstrates a correct understanding of the proper way to discontinue baclofen. Baclofen should not be stopped suddenly due to the risk of withdrawal symptoms, which can include increased spasticity, hallucinations, or seizures. A gradual tapering of the dose over a period of 1 to 2 weeks is recommended to avoid withdrawal. This is the most appropriate and safe response.
D) Feel an increase in energy with this medication:
Baclofen is not a medication designed to increase energy. Its primary purpose is to reduce muscle spasticity, not to provide a stimulant effect. If the client expects an increase in energy, this could indicate a misunderstanding of the medication's effects. Baclofen's focus is on reducing spasticity and muscle tightness, not improving energy levels.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Unstable:
Unstable angina is the type of angina most closely related to an impending myocardial infarction (MI). It is characterized by unpredictable chest pain that occurs at rest or with minimal exertion, or that increases in severity or frequency. Unstable angina represents a medical emergency and can progress to an MI if not promptly treated. It occurs when there is increased myocardial oxygen demand and a partially occluded coronary artery, often due to a ruptured atherosclerotic plaque.
B) Variant (Prinzmetal's) angina:
Variant angina, also known as Prinzmetal's angina, is caused by a spasm of the coronary artery, which temporarily narrows or obstructs blood flow. Although it can be severe and may occur at rest, it is typically transient and is not directly related to the development of an MI. Variant angina usually responds to medications such as nitrates or calcium channel blockers, and while it can be dangerous, it is not the most likely type of angina associated with a myocardial infarction.
C) Chronic stable angina:
Chronic stable angina occurs with predictable patterns, typically with exertion or stress, and resolves with rest or nitroglycerin. It does not usually indicate an impending MI, as it is a chronic condition caused by atherosclerosis that limits the heart's blood supply under stress. While chronic stable angina increases the risk of MI over time, it is not directly associated with an imminent heart attack.
D) Nocturnal angina:
Nocturnal angina refers to chest pain that occurs during the night or early morning hours, often during sleep. It may be associated with sleep apnea, GERD, or increased sympathetic tone during sleep. This type of angina is less commonly linked to an impending MI compared to unstable angina, although it should still be evaluated for any underlying cardiovascular issues.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Includes the head-to-toe anterior and posterior assessment:
While a head-to-toe physical assessment is important in trauma care, it is not the first priority. The primary assessment focuses on immediate life-threatening conditions, and the head-to-toe assessment would come after the initial stabilization of the patient's airway, breathing, circulation, and disability. A comprehensive physical examination is crucial but secondary to addressing urgent life threats.
B) Focuses on the ABCDE's to identify life-threatening problems:
The ABCDE's (Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure) are the primary framework for assessing and stabilizing a trauma patient. This approach is used to identify and prioritize life-threatening problems. It ensures that the most critical issues, such as airway obstruction, respiratory failure, shock, and neurological deficits, are addressed first. This protocol is the gold standard in trauma care and is the most appropriate initial assessment in major trauma.
C) Includes the use of a standard pain scale and past medical/surgical history:
While it is important to assess pain and gather a medical history in the trauma patient, these are secondary considerations after addressing immediate threats to life. Pain management and obtaining a full history are crucial, but they are not as urgent as addressing airway, breathing, and circulation issues. These should be part of a more detailed secondary assessment once the patient is stable.
D) Consists of analyzing the results of the diagnostic testing:
Diagnostic testing, such as imaging studies and lab work, are important but are not the first priority. The primary assessment should focus on the ABCDE's. Diagnostic results are typically analyzed after the patient is stabilized, as they provide additional information but do not address immediate survival needs.
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