The nurse understands the primary assessment for a patient following a major trauma:
includes the head-to-toe anterior and posterior assessment
focuses on the ABCDE's to identify life threating problems
includes the use of a standard pain scale and past medical/surgical history
consists of analyzing the results of the diagnostic testing
The Correct Answer is B
A) Includes the head-to-toe anterior and posterior assessment:
While a head-to-toe physical assessment is important in trauma care, it is not the first priority. The primary assessment focuses on immediate life-threatening conditions, and the head-to-toe assessment would come after the initial stabilization of the patient's airway, breathing, circulation, and disability. A comprehensive physical examination is crucial but secondary to addressing urgent life threats.
B) Focuses on the ABCDE's to identify life-threatening problems:
The ABCDE's (Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure) are the primary framework for assessing and stabilizing a trauma patient. This approach is used to identify and prioritize life-threatening problems. It ensures that the most critical issues, such as airway obstruction, respiratory failure, shock, and neurological deficits, are addressed first. This protocol is the gold standard in trauma care and is the most appropriate initial assessment in major trauma.
C) Includes the use of a standard pain scale and past medical/surgical history:
While it is important to assess pain and gather a medical history in the trauma patient, these are secondary considerations after addressing immediate threats to life. Pain management and obtaining a full history are crucial, but they are not as urgent as addressing airway, breathing, and circulation issues. These should be part of a more detailed secondary assessment once the patient is stable.
D) Consists of analyzing the results of the diagnostic testing:
Diagnostic testing, such as imaging studies and lab work, are important but are not the first priority. The primary assessment should focus on the ABCDE's. Diagnostic results are typically analyzed after the patient is stabilized, as they provide additional information but do not address immediate survival needs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A"]
Explanation
A) There are no obvious symptoms or problems: Ovarian cancer is often referred to as the "silent killer" because it tends to develop without noticeable symptoms in the early stages. When symptoms do appear, they are often vague and nonspecific, such as bloating, abdominal discomfort, or changes in bowel habits. By the time ovarian cancer is diagnosed, it is frequently at an advanced stage, making it more difficult to treat effectively. This lack of early, clear symptoms contributes significantly to the high death rate associated with the disease.
B) Radiation therapy is ineffective because the ovaries are located so deep within the pelvis: While ovarian cancer is located deep within the pelvis, radiation therapy can still be effective for certain types of tumors. However, the primary reason for high death rates is not the location of the ovaries, but the late-stage diagnosis and difficulty in detecting the cancer early.
C) The causative cancer cell is resistant to chemotherapy or radiation: While some ovarian cancer cells may exhibit resistance to treatment, this is not the main reason for the high mortality rate. The real issue is the lack of early detection, as ovarian cancer is often diagnosed when it has already spread beyond the ovaries. Early-stage ovarian cancer may be more responsive to treatment, but by the time symptoms are noticeable, the cancer is often advanced, which limits the effectiveness of chemotherapy and radiation.
D) Ovarian cancer occurs primarily among women over age 70 that also have other complicating health problems: Although the incidence of ovarian cancer increases with age, particularly after age 60, it is not the primary factor contributing to high death rates. Many women diagnosed with ovarian cancer are relatively healthy except for the cancer itself.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Intestines:
While abdominal trauma can affect the intestines, Kehr's sign, Cullen's sign, and Gray Turner's sign are more commonly associated with damage to the spleen rather than the intestines. Kehr's sign, in particular, is a hallmark of splenic injury, with pain referred to the left shoulder due to diaphragmatic irritation from blood in the peritoneum.
B) Liver:
Liver injuries often present with right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and elevated liver enzymes. While liver injuries can cause internal bleeding, Cullen's and Gray Turner's signs are more closely associated with retroperitoneal bleeding from the spleen rather than liver injuries. Kehr's sign, which is left-sided shoulder pain, would not typically indicate a liver injury.
C) Spleen:
The spleen is the most likely abdominal organ affected in this case due to the left-sided rib fractures. When the spleen is injured (often as a result of blunt trauma), it can cause intraperitoneal hemorrhage. This bleeding can irritate the diaphragm, leading to Kehr's sign, which presents as left shoulder pain. Additionally, Cullen's sign (periumbilical bruising) and Gray Turner's sign (flank bruising) are indicative of retroperitoneal bleeding, which can occur with splenic rupture or laceration.
D) Stomach:
While stomach injuries can occur with blunt abdominal trauma, they are less likely to cause the signs and symptoms seen in this patient (Kehr's, Cullen's, and Gray Turner's signs). Stomach trauma typically leads to pain and potential perforation, but it doesn't often cause the peritoneal bleeding patterns seen with splenic injuries.
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