Mary, a 45-year-old woman, comes into the clinic complaining of a swollen and painful toe after stubbing it on a furniture leg. The nurse explains that the pain is most likely due to what mechanism in the inflammatory response?
Release of enzymes that irritate the tissues.
Edema compressing nerve endings.
Heat generated during the process of lysis.
Accumulation of acidic waste from dying cells.
The Correct Answer is B
A. This mechanism is more relevant in conditions like pancreatitis or tissue injury involving enzyme release, not specifically in traumatic inflammation.
B. Inflammation leads to increased vascular permeability and fluid accumulation (edema), which can compress nerve endings and cause pain.
C. Lysis refers to the breakdown of cells, which may release heat, but this is not typically a significant factor in localized inflammation from trauma.
D. Acidic waste accumulation occurs in cell death processes like necrosis, but it's not the primary mechanism causing pain in traumatic inflammation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Oral antispasmodic agents may help with muscle twitching and cramps but are not indicated for dysphagia caused by corticospinal tract degeneration.
B. Anti-anxiety medications are not indicated for dysphagia and progressive muscle weakness.
C. Enteral tube feeding is appropriate to ensure adequate nutrition and hydration in individuals with dysphagia, preventing complications such as malnutrition and aspiration pneumonia.
D. Relaxation techniques may help with muscle tension and anxiety but would not address the dysphagia directly.
Correct Answer is A ,B ,C ,D
No explanation
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