Mary, a 45-year-old woman, comes into the clinic complaining of a swollen and painful toe after stubbing it on a furniture leg. The nurse explains that the pain is most likely due to what mechanism in the inflammatory response?

Release of enzymes that irritate the tissues.

Edema compressing nerve endings.

Heat generated during the process of lysis.

Accumulation of acidic waste from dying cells.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A.   This mechanism is more relevant in conditions like pancreatitis or tissue injury involving enzyme release, not specifically in traumatic inflammation.
B.   Inflammation leads to increased vascular permeability and fluid accumulation (edema), which can compress nerve endings and cause pain.
C.   Lysis refers to the breakdown of cells, which may release heat, but this is not typically a significant factor in localized inflammation from trauma.
D.   Acidic waste accumulation occurs in cell death processes like necrosis, but it's not the primary mechanism causing pain in traumatic inflammation.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. This action is not directly related to John's eye surgery.

B. Emotional support may be beneficial, but it's not the most crucial action post- Trabeculectomy.
C. This is crucial post-operative care to ensure proper wound healing and prevent complications such as hemorrhage.
D. While infection prevention is important, administering antibiotics specifically for John's past allergies without indication may not be appropriate.

A. To assess the size and shape of the testicles B. To detect any hernias in the inguinal ring and canal C. To check for the presence of any lumps in the scrotum D. To evaluate the character and distribution of pubic hair

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Assessing the size and shape of the testicles can be part of a genital examination but is not the primary reason for asking David to bear down.
B. Asking David to bear down increases intra-abdominal pressure, making it easier to detect hernias in the inguinal ring and canal.
C. Checking for the presence of lumps in the scrotum may be part of the examination but is not the primary reason for asking David to bear down.
D. Evaluating the character and distribution of pubic hair is not related to detecting hernias and is not the primary reason for asking David to bear down.

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Mary, a 45-year-old woman, comes into the clinic complaining of a swollen and painful toe after stubbing it on a furniture leg. The nurse explains that the pain is most likely due to what mechanism in the inflammatory response?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

David, a 30-year-old man, is examined for potential hernias. The healthcare provider asks him to bear down during the examination. What is the primary reason for this instruction?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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