Mary, a 45-year-old woman, comes into the clinic complaining of a swollen and painful toe after stubbing it on a furniture leg. The nurse explains that the pain is most likely due to what mechanism in the inflammatory response?
Release of enzymes that irritate the tissues.
Edema compressing nerve endings.
Heat generated during the process of lysis.
Accumulation of acidic waste from dying cells.
The Correct Answer is B
A. This mechanism is more relevant in conditions like pancreatitis or tissue injury involving enzyme release, not specifically in traumatic inflammation.
B. Inflammation leads to increased vascular permeability and fluid accumulation (edema), which can compress nerve endings and cause pain.
C. Lysis refers to the breakdown of cells, which may release heat, but this is not typically a significant factor in localized inflammation from trauma.
D. Acidic waste accumulation occurs in cell death processes like necrosis, but it's not the primary mechanism causing pain in traumatic inflammation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A,B,C,D
No explanation
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. While antiepileptic drugs are sometimes used to manage neuropathic pain, the priority in George's case is preventing complications related to diabetic neuropathy.
B. Dialysis is not indicated for neuropathy management.
C. While managing blood glucose levels is important in diabetes management, immediate insulin administration may not be necessary unless George is experiencing hyperglycemic crisis.
D. This is the priority intervention to prevent complications such as diabetic foot ulcers and infections.
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