Mr. Jones is a 65-year-old client who is struggling with his sense of purpose after retirement. Which psychoanalyst developed a developmental theory that covers the entire lifespan?

Sigmund Freud

Jean Piaget

Erik Erikson

Milton Erickson

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Sigmund Freud developed psychosexual stages of development, which primarily focus on early childhood and do not extend meaningfully into older adulthood.

Choice B reason: Jean Piaget is known for his cognitive development theory, which focuses on childhood stages of learning and does not address adult psychosocial development.

Choice C reason: Erik Erikson developed the psychosocial stages of development, which span from infancy to late adulthood. His final stage, "Integrity vs. Despair," specifically addresses the challenges of aging and finding meaning after retirement.

Choice D reason: Milton Erickson was a psychiatrist known for his work in hypnosis and brief therapy, not for a developmental theory covering the lifespan.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: SLUMS (Saint Louis University Mental Status Exam) assesses cognitive function and dementia, not movement disorders.

Choice B reason: CAGE is a screening tool for alcohol use disorders and does not involve physical examination.

Choice C reason: AIMS (Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale) is used to detect tardive dyskinesia and other extrapyramidal symptoms in patients taking antipsychotics. Tongue protrusion is part of the motor assessment.

Choice D reason: COWS (Clinical Opiate Withdrawal Scale) evaluates opioid withdrawal symptoms and does not include movement assessments related to antipsychotic use.

A. Self-report to state board of nursing B. Through the supervisory process and by talking to coworkers about the issues C. Individual therapy D. Discharge the client so as not to cause emotional harm

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Reporting to the state board is not appropriate unless there is a breach of professional conduct. Countertransference is a clinical issue best managed internally.

Choice B reason: Supervisory consultation is the standard and most effective method for addressing countertransference. It allows for reflection, guidance, and professional development without compromising client care.

Choice C reason: While individual therapy may help clinicians explore personal issues contributing to countertransference, it is not the primary method for managing it in clinical practice.

Choice D reason: Discharging the client prematurely due to countertransference may harm the therapeutic alliance and is not considered best practice unless absolutely necessary.

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Mr. Jones is a 65-year-old client who is struggling with his sense of purpose after retirement. Which psychoanalyst developed a developmental theory that covers the entire lifespan?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The PMHNP is evaluating a 67-year-old client who recently started the medication risperidone (Risperdal). As part of the evaluation, she asks the patient to open her mouth and then stick her tongue out. What assessment is the PMHNP conducting?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

If identified, how is countertransference best addressed?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Which form of psychotherapy is time-limited and focuses on a person's depressive symptoms as they relate to social and personal interactions?

Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) was developed by Aaron Beck, who believed that external events do not cause anxiety. Which of the following statements is correct?

Which form of psychotherapy, also known as humanistic, was developed by Carl Rogers?

The PMHNP is conducting an Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) test on her 67-year-old client, who was recently initiated on ziprasidone (Geodon). What does the AIMS test assess?

A 39-year-old woman with difficult-to-treat depression has tried all the antidepressant classes except MAOIs. She is currently taking an SSRI that will require a 5-week washout period before switching to an MAOI. Which of the following SSRIs is she currently taking?

A 23-year-old pregnant woman has been referred to the PMHNP by her OB/GYN for management of bipolar disorder. Of the following, which one is NOT an acceptable choice for this client due to teratogenic risks?