To control asthma, a client in a residential treatment facility uses a fluticasone propionate and salmeterol discus inhalation system, which provides an inhaled powdered form of these combined medications. Which instruction should the nurse provide to this client’s caregivers?
Explain that the client should not use the discus more than twice daily.
Clients using the discus may experience decreased blood pressure.
When using the discus, have the client breathe out rapidly into the mouthpiece.
Offer the discus to the client for use during an acute asthma attack.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason:
The fluticasone propionate and salmeterol discus inhalation system is designed to be used twice daily, approximately 12 hours apart. Using it more frequently can increase the risk of side effects without providing additional benefits. The medication is intended to provide long-term control of asthma symptoms, not immediate relief during an acute attack.

Choice B Reason:
There is no significant evidence to suggest that using the fluticasone propionate and salmeterol discus inhalation system causes decreased blood pressure. The primary side effects are related to the respiratory system, such as throat irritation, hoarseness, and oral thrush. Therefore, this instruction is not relevant to the proper use of the medication.
Choice C Reason:
When using the discus, the client should breathe out gently and away from the mouthpiece before inhaling the medication. Breathing out rapidly into the mouthpiece can cause the medication to be expelled from the device, reducing its effectiveness. Proper technique involves exhaling gently, then inhaling quickly and deeply through the mouthpiece.
Choice D Reason:
The fluticasone propionate and salmeterol discus inhalation system is not intended for use during an acute asthma attack. It is a maintenance medication designed to prevent asthma symptoms over time. For acute asthma attacks, a short-acting bronchodilator, such as albuterol, should be used. Using the discus during an acute attack will not provide the rapid relief needed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E","F","G","H"]
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Shaking is lessened: This indicates that the client’s nervous system is stabilizing. Shaking or tremors can be a sign of an adverse drug reaction, particularly if the reaction involves the central nervous system. The lessening of shaking suggests that the adverse effects are subsiding and the client’s condition is improving.
Choice B reason:
Client is no longer flushed: Flushing is a common symptom of an adverse drug reaction, particularly with medications like vancomycin, which can cause “red man syndrome.” The absence of flushing indicates that the reaction is resolving and the client’s skin is returning to its normal state.
Choice C reason:
No longer itching: Itching is a common symptom of an allergic reaction. The cessation of itching suggests that the histamine response is diminishing, indicating that the adverse reaction is being controlled and the client is recovering.
Choice D reason:
Anxiety has decreased: Anxiety can be a symptom of an adverse drug reaction, particularly if the reaction involves the cardiovascular or nervous system. The decrease in anxiety indicates that the client’s overall condition is stabilizing and that the adverse effects are subsiding.
Choice E reason:
Skin warm and dry: Normal skin temperature and moisture levels indicate that the client’s autonomic nervous system is functioning properly. This is a positive sign that the adverse drug reaction is resolving and the client’s body is returning to its normal state.
Choice F reason:
Heart rate 62 beats/minute, blood pressure 130/72 mm Hg: These vital signs are within normal ranges for a resting adult. A normal heart rate (60-100 beats per minute) and blood pressure (less than 120/80 mm Hg) indicate that the client’s cardiovascular system is stabilizing and that the adverse drug reaction is resolving.
Choice G reason:
No chest pain noted: The absence of chest pain is a positive sign, as chest pain can be a symptom of a severe adverse drug reaction, particularly if it involves the cardiovascular system. The lack of chest pain indicates that the client’s condition is improving.
Choice H reason:
Respirations are even and unlabored: Normal respiratory function indicates that the client’s respiratory system is not being adversely affected by the drug reaction. Even and unlabored respirations suggest that the client is recovering and that the adverse effects are subsiding.
Choice I reason:
Drowsy: While drowsiness can be a side effect of medications like diphenhydramine, it can also indicate that the client’s body is relaxing and recovering from the adverse drug reaction. Drowsiness in this context is a sign that the client is stabilizing and that the adverse effects are being managed.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"D","dropdown-group-3":"D"}
Explanation
The client is at immediate risk for developing Cardiac arrest, Anaphylaxis, and Arrhythmias.
Choice A: Peripheral Edema
Peripheral edema refers to the swelling of tissues, usually in the lower limbs, due to the accumulation of fluid. While peripheral edema can be a concern in patients with heart conditions, it is not an immediate risk in the context of the patient’s current situation. The primary concerns for this patient, given her history of symptomatic bradycardia and atrial fibrillation, are more acute and life-threatening conditions such as cardiac arrest, anaphylaxis, and arrhythmias. Peripheral edema is typically a chronic condition that develops over time and is not considered an emergent risk in this scenario.
Choice B: Renal Failure
Renal failure, or kidney failure, is a condition where the kidneys lose their ability to filter waste from the blood effectively. While renal failure can be a serious complication, it is not an immediate risk for this patient. The patient’s primary issues are related to her cardiovascular system, specifically her low heart rate and history of atrial fibrillation. The immediate risks in this scenario are more likely to be related to acute cardiovascular events rather than renal complications. Additionally, there is no indication in the patient’s history or current treatment that suggests an imminent risk of renal failure.
Choice C: Necrosis
Necrosis refers to the death of body tissue due to a lack of blood flow or infection. While necrosis can occur in severe cases of prolonged ischemia or infection, it is not an immediate risk for this patient. The patient’s current condition and treatment plan do not indicate a high risk of tissue necrosis. The more pressing concerns are related to her cardiovascular health, specifically the risk of cardiac arrest, anaphylaxis, and arrhythmias. These conditions are more likely to occur suddenly and require immediate medical intervention.
Choice D: Cardiac Arrest
Cardiac arrest is a sudden loss of heart function, leading to a cessation of blood flow to the body’s organs. Given the patient’s history of symptomatic bradycardia and atrial fibrillation, she is at a high risk of developing cardiac arrest. Bradycardia can lead to insufficient blood flow and oxygen delivery to vital organs, potentially resulting in cardiac arrest. Additionally, the stress of the upcoming procedure and the discontinuation of anticoagulants can further increase this risk. Therefore, cardiac arrest is a significant immediate risk for this patient and requires close monitoring and preparedness for emergency intervention.
Choice E: Anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis is a severe, potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur rapidly. The patient is receiving vancomycin, which is known to cause hypersensitivity reactions, including anaphylaxis, in some individuals. Symptoms of anaphylaxis include difficulty breathing, swelling, hives, and a drop in blood pressure. Given the patient’s current infusion of vancomycin, she is at risk for developing anaphylaxis, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent severe complications or death. The nurse must be vigilant for signs of anaphylaxis and be prepared to administer emergency treatment if necessary.
Choice F: Arrhythmias
Arrhythmias are irregular heartbeats that can range from benign to life-threatening. The patient has a history of atrial fibrillation, a type of arrhythmia, and symptomatic bradycardia, both of which put her at risk for developing further arrhythmias. The stress of the upcoming procedure, changes in medication, and the underlying heart conditions all contribute to the risk of arrhythmias. These irregular heartbeats can lead to decreased cardiac output, syncope, or even progression to more severe arrhythmias like ventricular fibrillation, which can be fatal. Therefore, arrhythmias are an immediate risk for this patient and require continuous cardiac monitoring and readiness to intervene.
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