To control asthma, a client in a residential treatment facility uses a fluticasone propionate and salmeterol discus inhalation system, which provides an inhaled powdered form of these combined medications. Which instruction should the nurse provide to this client’s caregivers?
Explain that the client should not use the discus more than twice daily.
Clients using the discus may experience decreased blood pressure.
When using the discus, have the client breathe out rapidly into the mouthpiece.
Offer the discus to the client for use during an acute asthma attack.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason:
The fluticasone propionate and salmeterol discus inhalation system is designed to be used twice daily, approximately 12 hours apart. Using it more frequently can increase the risk of side effects without providing additional benefits. The medication is intended to provide long-term control of asthma symptoms, not immediate relief during an acute attack.
Choice B Reason:
There is no significant evidence to suggest that using the fluticasone propionate and salmeterol discus inhalation system causes decreased blood pressure. The primary side effects are related to the respiratory system, such as throat irritation, hoarseness, and oral thrush. Therefore, this instruction is not relevant to the proper use of the medication.
Choice C Reason:
When using the discus, the client should breathe out gently and away from the mouthpiece before inhaling the medication. Breathing out rapidly into the mouthpiece can cause the medication to be expelled from the device, reducing its effectiveness. Proper technique involves exhaling gently, then inhaling quickly and deeply through the mouthpiece.
Choice D Reason:
The fluticasone propionate and salmeterol discus inhalation system is not intended for use during an acute asthma attack. It is a maintenance medication designed to prevent asthma symptoms over time. For acute asthma attacks, a short-acting bronchodilator, such as albuterol, should be used. Using the discus during an acute attack will not provide the rapid relief needed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","E","F","G","H"]
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Shaking is lessened: This indicates that the client’s nervous system is stabilizing. Shaking or tremors can be a sign of an adverse drug reaction, particularly if the reaction involves the central nervous system. The lessening of shaking suggests that the adverse effects are subsiding and the client’s condition is improving.
Choice B reason:
Client is no longer flushed: Flushing is a common symptom of an adverse drug reaction, particularly with medications like vancomycin, which can cause “red man syndrome.” The absence of flushing indicates that the reaction is resolving and the client’s skin is returning to its normal state.
Choice C reason:
No longer itching: Itching is a common symptom of an allergic reaction. The cessation of itching suggests that the histamine response is diminishing, indicating that the adverse reaction is being controlled and the client is recovering.
Choice D reason:
Anxiety has decreased: Anxiety can be a symptom of an adverse drug reaction, particularly if the reaction involves the cardiovascular or nervous system. The decrease in anxiety indicates that the client’s overall condition is stabilizing and that the adverse effects are subsiding.
Choice E reason:
Skin warm and dry: Normal skin temperature and moisture levels indicate that the client’s autonomic nervous system is functioning properly. This is a positive sign that the adverse drug reaction is resolving and the client’s body is returning to its normal state.
Choice F reason:
Heart rate 62 beats/minute, blood pressure 130/72 mm Hg: These vital signs are within normal ranges for a resting adult. A normal heart rate (60-100 beats per minute) and blood pressure (less than 120/80 mm Hg) indicate that the client’s cardiovascular system is stabilizing and that the adverse drug reaction is resolving.
Choice G reason:
No chest pain noted: The absence of chest pain is a positive sign, as chest pain can be a symptom of a severe adverse drug reaction, particularly if it involves the cardiovascular system. The lack of chest pain indicates that the client’s condition is improving.
Choice H reason:
Respirations are even and unlabored: Normal respiratory function indicates that the client’s respiratory system is not being adversely affected by the drug reaction. Even and unlabored respirations suggest that the client is recovering and that the adverse effects are subsiding.
Choice I reason:
Drowsy: While drowsiness can be a side effect of medications like diphenhydramine, it can also indicate that the client’s body is relaxing and recovering from the adverse drug reaction. Drowsiness in this context is a sign that the client is stabilizing and that the adverse effects are being managed.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Depression screening is important for overall health and well-being, especially in weight management programs where mental health can significantly impact outcomes. However, it is not the primary measure for determining the effectiveness of orlistat. Orlistat works by inhibiting the absorption of fats from the diet, leading to weight loss. Therefore, while mental health monitoring is crucial, it does not directly measure the medication’s effectiveness.
Choice B Reason:
Daily calorie count is a useful tool in weight management programs to ensure that clients are adhering to a calorie-restricted diet. However, it is not a direct measure of the effectiveness of orlistat. While calorie counting can help manage weight, the primary goal of orlistat is to reduce fat absorption, which is better reflected in changes in body weight and BMI.
Choice C Reason:
Body mass index (BMI) is a key indicator of weight management and is directly related to the effectiveness of orlistat. BMI is calculated based on height and weight, providing a clear measure of changes in body weight over time. Monitoring BMI helps determine if the client is losing weight as expected, making it the most appropriate assessment for evaluating the effectiveness of orlistat.
Choice D Reason:
Serum protein levels are important for assessing nutritional status and overall health. However, they do not directly measure the effectiveness of orlistat in a weight management program. Orlistat’s primary function is to reduce fat absorption, and its effectiveness is better assessed through changes in body weight and BMI rather than serum protein levels.
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