Neurologic Case Study
Patient Profile:
- Age: 68 years
- Gender: Male
- Medical History: Hypertension, Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
- Medications: Lisinopril, Metformin
- Allergies: None
Chief Complaint: The patient presents to the emergency department (ED) with sudden onset of right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking that began approximately 1 hour prior to arrival.
Which condition is the patient most likely experiencing?
Hypoglycemia
Hemorrhagic stroke
Ischemic stroke
Multiple sclerosis
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Hypoglycemia typically presents with symptoms such as sweating, trembling, hunger, confusion, and in severe cases, loss of consciousness. The patient's symptoms of sudden right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking are more consistent with a neurological event rather than low blood sugar levels.
Choice B reason: Hemorrhagic stroke involves bleeding within the brain. Although it can present with similar symptoms to ischemic stroke, the diagnostic tests indicate no evidence of hemorrhage. This makes a hemorrhagic stroke less likely.
Choice C reason: Ischemic stroke occurs when a blood clot blocks a blood vessel in the brain, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to a part of the brain. The patient's symptoms of sudden right-sided weakness and expressive aphasia are classic signs of an ischemic stroke, and the absence of hemorrhage on the head CT scan supports this diagnosis.
Choice D reason: Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a chronic, progressive disease that affects the central nervous system. It usually presents with episodic neurological symptoms rather than the sudden onset seen in this patient. MS symptoms develop over time and can vary widely, whereas the patient's acute presentation is more indicative of a stroke.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Stage 2 pressure injuries involve partial-thickness loss of skin with exposed dermis. The wound bed is viable, pink or red, and moist, and may also present as an intact or ruptured serum-filled blister. Since the wound involves subcutaneous tissue, it exceeds the criteria for Stage 2.
Choice B reason: Stage 1 pressure injuries are characterized by non-blanchable erythema of intact skin. While the skin is still intact, it may appear red and not lighten when pressed. Given the description of a wound involving subcutaneous tissue, Stage 1 is not appropriate.
Choice C reason: Stage 3 pressure injuries involve full-thickness loss of skin, where adipose (fat) is visible in the ulcer and granulation tissue and epibole (rolled wound edges) are often present. Slough and/or eschar may be visible, but the depth of tissue damage varies by anatomical location. This aligns with the wound involving subcutaneous tissue.
Choice D reason: Stage 4 pressure injuries involve full-thickness skin and tissue loss with exposed or directly palpable fascia, muscle, tendon, ligament, cartilage, or bone. While the wound described involves subcutaneous tissue, there is no mention of deeper tissue involvement, excluding Stage 4 classification.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Administering Furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV is important for reducing fluid overload, but the immediate priority is to address the patient's low oxygen saturation levels.
Choice B reason: Assessing lung sounds and peripheral edema is important for ongoing monitoring, but the immediate action should focus on stabilizing the patient's oxygen levels.
Choice C reason: Placing the patient on oxygen to titrate to oxygen saturations 94% or greater is the most immediate and critical intervention. The patient's oxygen saturation is significantly low at 86%, and addressing this ensures adequate oxygenation and reduces the risk of hypoxia.
Choice D reason: Educating the patient on lifestyle modifications is important for long-term management but is not the immediate priority in an acute situation.
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