On the first prenatal visit, examination of the woman's internal genitalia reveals a bluish coloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa. The nurse documents this finding as:

Chadwick's sign

Goodell's sign

Hegar's sign

Homan's sign

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A Reason: This is correct because Chadwick's sign is a bluish or purplish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and vulva caused by increased blood flow to the pelvic area during pregnancy. It is one of the earliest signs of pregnancy and can be observed as early as six to eight weeks of gestation.

Choice B Reason: This is incorrect because Goodell's sign is a softening of the cervix due to increased vascularity and edema during pregnancy. It is another early sign of pregnancy and can be detected by palpation around six to eight weeks of gestation.

Choice C Reason: This is incorrect because Hegar's sign is a softening of the lower uterine segment or isthmus during pregnancy. It is also an early sign of pregnancy and can be felt by bimanual examination around six to twelve weeks of gestation.

Choice D Reason: This is incorrect because Homan's sign is a pain in the calf or popliteal region when the foot is dorsiflexed. It is a sign of deep vein thrombosis, which is a potential complication of pregnancy, but not a normal finding.

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Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"C"}

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Preeclampsia is a condition in which a pregnant woman develops high blood pressure and proteinuria (protein in the urine). It can lead to serious complications such as eclampsia, which is seizures caused by preeclampsia, and HELLP syndrome, which is hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. The main risk factor for preeclampsia is chronic hypertension, which means high blood pressure before pregnancy or before 20 weeks of gestation. Preeclampsia can be detected by measuring the blood pressure and urine protein level. Uric acid is not a reliable indicator of preeclampsia.

Choice B Reason: Gestational diabetes is the correct answer as explained above.

Choice C Reason: Eclampsia is a severe complication of preeclampsia that causes seizures and can be fatal for both the mother and the baby. It usually occurs after 20 weeks of gestation or during labor or postpartum. The main risk factor for eclampsia is preeclampsia, which means high blood pressure and proteinuria during pregnancy. Eclampsia can be prevented by treating preeclampsia with antihypertensive drugs and magnesium sulfate, which is a medication that prevents seizures. Magnesium sulfate can also lower the serum magnesium level, which is the amount of magnesium in the blood. However, magnesium level is not a diagnostic criterion for eclampsia.

Choice D Reason: Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta covers part or all of the opening of the cervix. It can cause bleeding during pregnancy or delivery and can endanger both the mother and the baby. The main risk factor for placenta previa is previous cesarean section or other uterine surgery, which can cause scarring or damage to the uterine wall. Placenta previa can be detected by ultrasound, which is an imaging test that uses sound waves to create pictures of the uterus and placenta. Hemoglobin is not a relevant factor for placenta previa. Gestational diabetes is a condition in which a woman develops high blood sugar levels during pregnancy. It can cause complications for both the mother and the baby, such as macrosomia, hypoglycemia, and birth trauma. The main risk factor for gestational diabetes is glucose intolerance, which means the body cannot use glucose effectively. Glucose intolerance can be detected by measuring the serum glucose level, which is the amount of glucose in the blood.

Correct Answer is ["2"]

Explanation

Step 1: Determine the total daily dose of quetiapine.

The provider prescribes 50 mg every 12 hours.
Total daily dose = 50 mg × 2 = 100 mg.

Step 2: Calculate the total dose for 3 days.

Total dose for 3 days = 100 mg × 3 = 300 mg.

Step 3: Determine the dose per administration.

The total daily dose is divided into two doses (every 12 hours).
Dose per administration = 100 mg ÷ 2 = 50 mg.

Step 4: Calculate the number of tablets needed per dose.

Each tablet is 25 mg.
Number of tablets per dose = 50 mg ÷ 25 mg = 2 tablets.

Step 5: Confirm the number of tablets to be administered per dose on day 3.

The dose per administration remains the same each day.
Therefore, the nurse should administer 2 tablets per dose on day 3.

So, the nurse should administer 2 tablets per dose on day 3.

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On the first prenatal visit, examination of the woman's internal genitalia reveals a bluish coloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa. The nurse documents this finding as:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Complete the following sentence by using the best option: The client is at great risk for dropdownevidenced by the client's serum dropdown.

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"C"}

Explanation

A provider prescribes quetiapine 50 mg PO divided equally every 12 hours for 3 days. Available is quetiapine 25 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer per dose on day 3? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Correct Answer is ["2"]

Explanation

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