One day after vaginal delivery of a full-term baby, a postpartum client’s white blood cell count is 15,000/mm (15 x 109/L). What action should the nurse take first?
Assess the client’s perineal area for signs of a perineal hematoma.
Assess the client’s temperature, pulse, and respirations every 4 hours.
Notify the healthcare provider, since this finding is indicative of infection.
Check the differential, since the WBC is normal for this client.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
While a perineal hematoma can lead to increased WBC count, there is no indication of such a complication, making this assessment less immediate.
Choice B rationale
Assessing vital signs is an important part of routine postpartum care. Still, a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm is within a normal range for a woman within the first 24-48 hours after delivery and is not necessarily indicative of infection.
Choice C rationale
While an elevated WBC can indicate infection, a postpartum woman's white blood cell count can be normally elevated up to 20,000/mm due to the stress of labor and delivery. Checking a differential will provide a more accurate breakdown of different types of white blood cells for a more precise assessment.
Choice D rationale
A normal WBC in a postpartum client ranges from (12,000- 20, 000/mm. Checking the white blood cell differential helps determine the specific types of WBCs present and gives more information as to whether the elevation is the body's normal response to childbirth or a sign of infection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A client at 32 weeks gestation reporting nausea, vomiting, and elevated blood pressure could be showing signs of a condition called gestational hypertension or preeclampsia. This condition can affect the health of both the mother and the baby, depending on how severe the issue is. Inspecting the client’s face for edema is a relevant next step because swelling in the face, hands, or fingers is a common symptom of preeclampsia.
Choice B rationale
While headaches can be a symptom of preeclampsia, asking about a history of cluster headaches may not be the most immediate concern in this situation. Cluster headaches are a specific type of headache that is not directly related to pregnancy or preeclampsia.
Choice C rationale
Determining the frequency of headaches could be useful in assessing the client’s overall health, but it may not be the most immediate concern when the client is showing potential signs of preeclampsia.
Choice D rationale
Monitoring and timing the client’s contractions would be more relevant if the client was in labor or showing signs of preterm labor. In this case, the client’s symptoms are more indicative of a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While notifying the healthcare provider is important, it is not the first action to take. The nurse should first address the immediate issue of a potentially full bladder that could be displacing the uterus.
Choice B rationale
Encouraging the client to void can help if the bladder is full. A full bladder can displace the uterus and interfere with uterine contractions, leading to increased bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Administering ibuprofen can help with cramping, but it does not address the immediate issue of a potentially full bladder displacing the uterus.
Choice D rationale
Increasing the intravenous fluid rate is not the first action to take. The nurse should first address the immediate issue of a potentially full bladder displacing the uterus.
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