Find information about a client below.

Exhibits

The client is in the provider’s office for a physical. He states that he has been monitoring his blood pressure, but it is continuing to go up.

The physician has given the client a prescription for captopril.

Choose the most likely options for the information missing from the statement(s) by selecting from the lists of options provided.

Captopril is a
dropdown
that works by
dropdown
.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"D"}

Choice A rationale: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are a different class of
medications commonly used to relieve pain, inflammation, and reduce fever. They are not used
for treating hypertension or acting as ACE inhibitors.
Choice B rationale: Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) are another class of
antihypertensive medications that work by blocking the action of angiotensin II, a hormone that
causes blood vessels to constrict. While ARBs are similar in function to ACE inhibitors in
managing blood pressure, captopril specifically belongs to the ACE inhibitor class.
Choice C rationale: Captopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. ACE
inhibitors are a class of antihypertensive medications that work by inhibiting the enzyme ACE,
which converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. By inhibiting this conversion, ACE inhibitors
help relax and dilate blood vessels, leading to decreased blood pressure. They are commonly
used to treat hypertension and other cardiovascular conditions.
Choice D rationale: Aldosterone antagonists are a different class of medications used to block the
action of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates sodium and water balance in the body. They are
used to manage conditions such as heart failure and hypertension but are not synonymous with ACE inhibitors like captopril.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale: This instruction is not directly related to spironolactone use or hyperaldosteronism. Excessive bruising may be relevant in some situations but not specifically for this scenario.
Choice B rationale: While heart failure patients are often advised to reduce their sodium intake, the use of a salt substitute (potassium-based) would be contraindicated in this case due to the risk of hyperkalemia.
Choice C rationale: This instruction is not directly related to spironolactone use or
hyperaldosteronism. It may be relevant for sun protection, but it is not a priority in this context.
Choice D rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium while excreting sodium and water. Since the client has heart failure (HF), there is a risk of hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) associated with spironolactone use. To prevent this, the nurse should instruct the client to limit their intake of high-potassium foods, such as bananas, oranges, tomatoes, spinach, and other potassium-rich foods.

A. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and two hours before the next administration of the medication. B. One hour after completion of the IV dose and one hour before the next administration of the medication. C. Thirty minutes into the administration of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication. D. Immediately after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication. E. None F. None

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

choice A, Drawing the peak level two hours after the IV dose is too late to capture the drug's highest serum concentration. Similarly, drawing the trough two hours before the next dose does not reflect the lowest drug level accurately.
Choice B,Drawing the peak level one hour after completion of the IV dose ensures an accurate measurement of the highest serum concentration, as vancomycin typically peaks within this time frame. Drawing the trough one hour before the next dose ensures the lowest concentration of the drug is measured, providing precise therapeutic monitoring.

Choice C is incorrect because drawing blood 30 minutes into the IV dose would not allow the full dose to circulate and reach peak levels in the bloodstream.

Choice D.Drawing the peak level immediately after the completion of the IV dose is too early, as the drug needs time to distribute in the bloodstream and reach its highest concentration. While drawing the trough 30 minutes before the next dose is appropriate, the incorrect timing of the peak makes this option unsuitable.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with heart failure (HF) develops hyperaldosteronism and spironolactone is prescribed. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client is receiving intravenous (IV) vancomycin and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine the serum level of the drug. Which collection times provide the best determination of these levels?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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The nurse prepares to administer a scheduled dose of labetalol by mouth to a client with hypertension. The client's vital signs are temperature 99° F (37.2° C), heart rate 48 beats/minute, respirations 16 breaths/minute, and blood pressure (B/P) 150/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take?

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