Patient Data

The nurse is discussing the client's pain management with a student nurse.

Choose the most likely options for the information missing from the statement(s) by selecting from the lists of options provided.

Morphine is a
___
and it activates
_
receptors and is used to relieve
____

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B","dropdown-group-3":"A"}

Pure opioid agonist: Morphine is classified as a pure opioid agonist because it fully binds and activates opioid receptors, particularly mu receptors, producing maximum analgesic effects for moderate to severe pain management.
Mixed opioid antagonist: Mixed opioid antagonists, like nalbuphine, both activate and block opioid receptors depending on the site. Morphine does not block opioid activity; it purely stimulates, making this choice incorrect.
Non-opioid analgesic: Non-opioid analgesics, such as acetaminophen and NSAIDs, relieve mild to moderate pain without acting on opioid receptors. Morphine’s mechanism and use are specific to the opioid class.
Partial opioid agonist: Partial agonists, such as buprenorphine, activate opioid receptors but produce a weaker response compared to pure agonists. Morphine elicits a full receptor response, differentiating it from partial agonists.
Mu: Mu receptors are the primary opioid receptors activated by morphine, leading to effects such as analgesia, euphoria, respiratory depression, and decreased gastrointestinal motility.
Beta: Beta receptors are adrenergic receptors involved in cardiovascular responses, not pain modulation. Morphine does not interact with beta receptors.
Alpha: Alpha receptors are also part of the adrenergic system and regulate vascular tone and blood pressure. Morphine’s action is not through alpha receptor activation.
Severe pain: Morphine is most commonly used to treat moderate to severe acute or chronic pain, especially postoperative pain, cancer pain, and trauma-related injuries requiring strong opioid therapy.
Hypertension: Morphine is not indicated for treating hypertension. While it may indirectly lower blood pressure due to vasodilation and reduced sympathetic tone, it is not a therapeutic antihypertensive agent.
Depression: Morphine is not used for managing depression. Although it can induce feelings of euphoria, its clinical use is strictly for pain relief, not mood disorders.

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Correct Answer is ["B","D"]

Explanation

A. Salmeterol via nebulizer: Salmeterol is a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) and is used for maintenance therapy, not for acute bronchospasm. It has a delayed onset of action and is not suitable for emergency relief.

B. Albuterol via nebulizer: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) that acts quickly to relax bronchial smooth muscle, relieving acute bronchospasm. It is one of the first-line treatments during an asthma exacerbation or acute respiratory distress.

C. Fexofenadine orally: Fexofenadine is an oral antihistamine used to treat allergic rhinitis, not acute bronchospasm. It would not provide the rapid airway dilation needed in an emergency asthma situation.

D. Levalbuterol inhaler: Levalbuterol is another short-acting beta-2 agonist similar to albuterol, used for quick relief of bronchospasm. It is appropriate for emergency use to improve airway obstruction rapidly.

E. Racemic epinephrine via nebulizer: Racemic epinephrine is typically used for upper airway obstruction, such as croup or severe airway swelling, not lower airway bronchospasm like in asthma. It is not first-line treatment for an asthma exacerbation.

F. Budesonide via metered dose inhaler: Budesonide is an inhaled corticosteroid intended for long-term asthma control, not immediate relief. Its onset is delayed, making it unsuitable for managing acute respiratory distress.

A. Advise the client that once symptoms occur it is too late to receive an influenza vaccination. B. Explain to the client that antibiotics are not useful in treating viral infections such as influenza. C. Refer the client to the healthcare provider at the clinic to obtain a medication prescription. D. Instruct the client that over-the-counter medications are sufficient to manage influenza symptoms.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Advise the client that once symptoms occur it is too late to receive an influenza vaccination: While it is true that vaccination is preventive and not therapeutic, the client's question concerns treatment, not vaccination. Discussing vaccination at this point does not directly address the immediate need for antiviral therapy.

B. Explain to the client that antibiotics are not useful in treating viral infections such as influenza: Although educating about antibiotic misuse is important, this response does not answer the client’s question about oseltamivir, which is an antiviral medication specifically intended for early influenza treatment.

C. Refer the client to the healthcare provider at the clinic to obtain a medication prescription: Oseltamivir must be prescribed and is most effective when started within 48 hours of symptom onset. Prompt referral ensures the client can receive the medication in time to potentially shorten the illness and reduce complications.

D. Instruct the client that over-the-counter medications are sufficient to manage influenza symptoms: Over-the-counter remedies may relieve symptoms, but they do not treat the viral infection. Early antiviral treatment with oseltamivir can decrease the severity and duration of influenza, particularly in high-risk individuals.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["B","D"]

Explanation

A client with symptoms of influenza that started the previous day asks the clinic nurse about taking oseltamivir to treat the infection. Which response should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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