Patient Data.
Which order would the nurse question? Select all that apply.
Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C).
Enalapril 10 mg every morning.
Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula.
Continuous pulse oximetry.
Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin.
Admit to the medical floor.
Vital signs every 4 hours.
Correct Answer : A,B,C
Choice A rationale:
Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C). This order is questionable because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can potentially increase blood pressure, which could be harmful to a patient with hypertension. Furthermore, NSAIDs can mask the symptoms of infection, which could delay the diagnosis and treatment of serious infections.
Choice B rationale:
Enalapril 10 mg every morning. This order is questionable because enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension. However, ACE inhibitors can cause a dry cough, which could exacerbate the patient’s existing cough due to pneumonia. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can potentially cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), so it’s important to monitor the patient’s electrolyte levels.
Choice C rationale:
Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula. This order is questionable because a high flow rate of oxygen can potentially cause oxygen toxicity or hyperoxia, which can lead to cellular damage. The typical flow rate for a nasal cannula is between 1-6 L/min. A flow rate of 10 L/min may be too high for this patient, especially without a specified target SpO2 range.
Choice D rationale:
Continuous pulse oximetry. This order is appropriate because it allows for continuous monitoring of the patient’s oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial in a patient with pneumonia and shortness of breath.
Choice E rationale:
Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin. This order is appropriate because these tests can help monitor the patient’s overall health status and response to treatment.
Choice F rationale:
Admit to the medical floor. This order is appropriate because the patient requires hospitalization for treatment and monitoring due to his pneumonia.
Choice G rationale:
Vital signs every 4 hours. This order is appropriate because it allows for regular monitoring of the patient’s vital signs, which can help detect any changes in his condition.
Choice H rationale:
Chest x-ray now. This order is appropriate because a chest x-ray can help confirm the diagnosis of pneumonia and assess its severity.
Choice I rationale:
Sputum culture and sensitivity. This order is appropriate because it can help identify the specific organism causing the pneumonia and determine its antibiotic sensitivity, which can guide antibiotic therapy.
Choice J rationale:
Levofloxacin 500 mg intravenously every 24 hours. This order is appropriate because levofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used to treat pneumonia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This is the correct answer because BUN and creatinine are the most important laboratory values to monitor for nephrotoxicity, which is the damage or injury to the kidneys caused by certain drugs or chemicals.
Nephrotoxicity can impair the kidneys' ability to filter waste products from the blood, resulting in elevated levels of BUN and creatinine. The normal range for BUN is 7 to 20 mg/dL, and for creatinine is 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL. The practical nurse (PN) should review these values before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity, such as aminoglycosides, cephalosporins, vancomycin, or sulfonamides. The PN should also monitor the client for signs and symptoms of nephrotoxicity, such as decreased urine output, edema, hypertension, fatigue, nausea, and confusion.
a) Serum calcium
This is not the correct answer because serum calcium is not directly related to nephrotoxicity. Serum calcium is the amount of calcium in the blood, which is important for bone health, muscle contraction, nerve function, and blood clotting. The normal range for serum calcium is 8.5 to 10.2 mg/dL. Serum calcium may be affected by kidney disease, but it is not a reliable indicator of nephrotoxicity.
b) Hemoglobin and hematocrit
This is not the correct answer because hemoglobin and hematocrit are not directly related to nephrotoxicity. Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen, and hematocrit is the percentage of red blood cells in the blood. The normal range for hemoglobin is 13.5 to 17.5 g/dL for men and 12 to 15.5 g/dL for women, and for hematocrit is 38.8 to 50% for men and 34.9 to 44.5% for women.
Hemoglobin and hematocrit may be affected by kidney disease, but they are not reliable indicators of
nephrotoxicity.
c) White blood cell count (WBC)
This is not the correct answer because WBC is not directly related to nephrotoxicity. WBC is the number of white blood cells in the blood, which are part of the immune system and fight infections. The normal range for WBC is 4,500 to 10,000 cells per microliter of blood. WBC may be elevated in response to an infection or inflammation, but it is not a reliable indicator of nephrotoxicity.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Encouraging the client to face their fear gradually is an appropriate nursing intervention for a client with a phobia. This approach is consistent with exposure therapy, which is a widely recognized and effective treatment for phobias. Exposure therapy involves gradually exposing the client to the feared object or situation in a controlled and supportive environment. By doing so, the client can learn to confront and manage their fear over time. This approach is evidence-based and helps the client build resilience and reduce anxiety.
Choice B rationale:
Administering benzodiazepines as needed for acute anxiety (Choice B) is not the first-line treatment for phobias. While benzodiazepines can provide temporary relief from anxiety symptoms, they do not address the underlying phobia and can lead to dependence and tolerance with prolonged use. Moreover, they are generally reserved for acute anxiety episodes and not considered a primary treatment for phobias.
Choice C rationale:
Providing psychoeducation about the causes and effects of phobias (Choice C) is a valuable component of treatment, but it alone may not be sufficient. Psychoeducation can help clients understand the nature of their phobia and reduce stigma, but it should be combined with evidence-based therapies like exposure therapy for comprehensive care.
Choice D rationale:
Teaching the client relaxation techniques to manage anxiety (Choice D) can be a helpful adjunct to treatment, but it is not the primary intervention for phobias. Relaxation techniques can be part of a broader strategy to reduce anxiety, but the client also needs exposure therapy or cognitive-behavioral therapy to address the phobia directly.
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