Patient Data.
Which order would the nurse question? Select all that apply.
Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C).
Enalapril 10 mg every morning.
Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula.
Continuous pulse oximetry.
Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin.
Admit to the medical floor.
Vital signs every 4 hours.
Correct Answer : A,B,C
Choice A rationale:
Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C). This order is questionable because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can potentially increase blood pressure, which could be harmful to a patient with hypertension. Furthermore, NSAIDs can mask the symptoms of infection, which could delay the diagnosis and treatment of serious infections.
Choice B rationale:
Enalapril 10 mg every morning. This order is questionable because enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension. However, ACE inhibitors can cause a dry cough, which could exacerbate the patient’s existing cough due to pneumonia. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can potentially cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), so it’s important to monitor the patient’s electrolyte levels.
Choice C rationale:
Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula. This order is questionable because a high flow rate of oxygen can potentially cause oxygen toxicity or hyperoxia, which can lead to cellular damage. The typical flow rate for a nasal cannula is between 1-6 L/min. A flow rate of 10 L/min may be too high for this patient, especially without a specified target SpO2 range.
Choice D rationale:
Continuous pulse oximetry. This order is appropriate because it allows for continuous monitoring of the patient’s oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial in a patient with pneumonia and shortness of breath.
Choice E rationale:
Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin. This order is appropriate because these tests can help monitor the patient’s overall health status and response to treatment.
Choice F rationale:
Admit to the medical floor. This order is appropriate because the patient requires hospitalization for treatment and monitoring due to his pneumonia.
Choice G rationale:
Vital signs every 4 hours. This order is appropriate because it allows for regular monitoring of the patient’s vital signs, which can help detect any changes in his condition.
Choice H rationale:
Chest x-ray now. This order is appropriate because a chest x-ray can help confirm the diagnosis of pneumonia and assess its severity.
Choice I rationale:
Sputum culture and sensitivity. This order is appropriate because it can help identify the specific organism causing the pneumonia and determine its antibiotic sensitivity, which can guide antibiotic therapy.
Choice J rationale:
Levofloxacin 500 mg intravenously every 24 hours. This order is appropriate because levofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used to treat pneumonia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]
Explanation
The observation(s) by the nurse that require immediate intervention to reduce the likelihood of harm to this client are:
A. The client’s oxygen saturation level is 85%. This is a sign of hypoxemia, which can lead to tissue hypoxia, organ damage, and cardiac arrest. The nurse should administer oxygen therapy and monitor the client’s respiratory status closely.
C. The client’s heart rate is 110 beats per minute. This is a sign of tachycardia, which can indicate worsening heart failure, dehydration, infection, or anxiety. The nurse should assess the client’s fluid balance, vital signs, and symptoms and report any changes to the physician. The nurse should also administer medications as prescribed to control the heart rate and reduce the cardiac workload.
E. The client’s blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg. This is a sign of hypertension, which can increase the risk of stroke, myocardial infarction, and renal failure. The nurse should administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed and monitor the client’s blood pressure and urine output. The nurse should also educate the client on lifestyle modifications to lower blood pressure, such as reducing salt intake, exercising, and managing stress .
The other observations do not require immediate intervention, but they should be addressed as part of the comprehensive nursing care plan for the client with heart failure and COPD. These include:
B. The client is eating less than half of meals. This can indicate poor appetite, nausea, dyspnea, or fatigue, which can affect the client’s nutritional status and energy level. The nurse should encourage the client to eat small, frequent, and balanced meals that are low in sodium, fat, and cholesterol. The nurse should also provide oral hygiene and offer supplements or enteral feeding if needed .
D. The client is reading a book. This can indicate that the client is coping well with the condition and engaging in leisure activities that promote relaxation and mental health. The nurse should praise the client for this positive behavior and provide emotional support and counseling as needed. The nurse should also teach the client about the signs and symptoms of exacerbation and when to seek medical help .
Correct Answer is ["A","D","F","I"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Starting an insulin drip at 0.1 u/kg/hr is a common treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The goal is to lower blood glucose levels while avoiding a rapid decrease that could lead to cerebral edema. Insulin infusions allow for precise control of the rate and can be adjusted as needed based on the patient’s response.
Choice B rationale:
Giving a long-acting insulin dose is not typically done during the acute treatment of DKA. The patient has already taken a dose of insulin glargine at home. Additional doses of long-acting insulin could potentially lead to hypoglycemia.
Choice C rationale:
Providing an oral medication that enhances insulin production would not be beneficial in this case. The patient has type 1 diabetes, which means her body does not produce insulin. Therefore, medications that stimulate insulin production would not be effective.
Choice D rationale:
Changing the intravenous fluid to 5% dextrose and 0.45% sodium chloride with 20 mEq potassium can help prevent hypoglycemia and hypokalemia, which are potential complications of DKA treatment. As blood glucose levels decrease with treatment, dextrose can help maintain appropriate glucose levels. Potassium is often depleted in DKA and needs to be replaced.
Choice E rationale:
Having the client drink as much as they can tolerate would not be appropriate at this time. The patient is currently experiencing nausea and vomiting, which could be exacerbated by oral fluid intake. Additionally, she is NPO (nothing by mouth), likely due to her unstable condition.
Choice F rationale:
Giving 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride IV can help correct dehydration, which is common in DKA due to excessive urination caused by high blood glucose levels.
Choice G rationale:
Promoting removal of electrolytes with a diuretic would not be beneficial in this case. The patient is likely already dehydrated and may have electrolyte imbalances due to DKA. Using a diuretic could exacerbate these issues.
Choice H rationale:
Giving a multivitamin is not typically part of the acute treatment for DKA. While overall nutritional status is important in managing diabetes, it would not address the immediate concerns of hyperglycemia and acidosis in DKA.
Choice I rationale:
Replacing potassium as needed is crucial in the treatment of DKA. Potassium levels can drop rapidly during treatment as insulin allows potassium to move back into cells. Low potassium (hypokalemia) can cause dangerous heart rhythms and muscle weakness.
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