Sarah, a 34-year-old pregnant woman, has had a blood pressure consistently ranging from 140/90 to 160/98 since she was 26. Her weight gain and urinalysis have been normal.
What is this condition called? At 32 weeks’ gestation, Sarah experiences a seizure.
Her blood pressure has been elevated since 28 weeks, her urine dipstick shows 4+ protein, and she exhibits generalized edema.
What is this condition called?
Gestational hypertension; preeclampsia
Chronic hypertension; eclampsia
Gestational hypertension; eclampsia
Chronic hypertension; HELLP Syndrome
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Gestational hypertension is characterized by high blood pressure that develops after 20 weeks of pregnancy and typically resolves within a few weeks postpartum. Preeclampsia is a pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of kidney damage.
However, Sarah’s condition does not fit this description because her blood pressure has been consistently high since she was 26, not just during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
Chronic hypertension refers to high blood pressure before pregnancy or early in pregnancy. Eclampsia is a severe form of preeclampsia that causes seizures. Given Sarah’s history of consistent high blood pressure since age 26 and her recent seizure at 32 weeks’ gestation, this choice fits her condition.
Choice C rationale
Gestational hypertension refers to high blood pressure that begins during pregnancy. Eclampsia is a severe form of preeclampsia that causes seizures. However, Sarah’s high blood pressure did not begin during pregnancy, making this choice incorrect.
Choice D rationale
Chronic hypertension refers to high blood pressure before pregnancy or early in pregnancy. HELLP Syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzyme levels, and Low Platelet levels) is a serious health condition that can affect pregnant women3. However, Sarah’s symptoms do not indicate HELLP Syndrome, making this choice incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Uterine atony refers to a soft and weak uterus after childbirth. It happens when your uterine muscles don’t contract enough to clamp the placental blood vessels shut after childbirth. This can lead to life-threatening blood loss after delivery. One of the causes of uterine atony is urinary retention. When the bladder is full, it can displace the uterus, preventing it from contracting properly. This can lead to uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage. Therefore, urinary retention can cause uterine atony and lateral displacement of the fundus.
Choice B rationale
Poor involution of the uterus is a condition where the uterus does not return to its normal size after childbirth. While poor involution can lead to prolonged bleeding, it does not directly cause uterine atony. Uterine atony is specifically a lack of muscle contraction, while poor involution is a failure of the uterus to reduce in size.
Choice C rationale
While infection can lead to many complications during the postpartum period, it is not a direct cause of uterine atony. Infections can cause endometritis, which is inflammation of the uterine lining, but this does not prevent the uterus from contracting.
Choice D rationale
Hemorrhage, or heavy bleeding, is a result of uterine atony, not a cause. When the uterus does not contract properly after childbirth, it can lead to excessive bleeding, or hemorrhage.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Terbutaline does not typically cause a decrease in maternal blood glucose levels. It is a medication used to relax the muscles in the uterus to prevent premature labor.
Choice B rationale
Terbutaline does not enhance the production of fetal lung surfactant. It is used to relax the muscles in the uterus to prevent premature labor.
Choice C rationale
Weakened uterine contractions are an expected finding in a client who has received terbutaline. Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication, which means it works to inhibit uterine contractions in order to prevent or halt preterm labor.
Choice D rationale
Terbutaline does not typically cause a decrease in fetal heart rate. It is used to relax the muscles in the uterus to prevent premature labor.
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