The client admitted with sickle cell anemia crisis is being treated with a transfusion of 2 units of packed red blood cells (PRBC's) for a low hemoglobin. The cent demonstrating a new onset of chest pain. low back pain, tachycardia and anxiety. The nurse's immediate intervention is
Stop transfusion, run normal saline.
Administer morphine IV.
Administer epinephrine IM
Continue to monitor the infusion.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Stop transfusion, run normal saline is correct because the client is likely experiencing an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR), which is life-threatening. The priority is to stop the transfusion immediately and maintain IV access with normal saline to prevent further hemolysis.
B. Administer morphine IV is incorrect because pain management is important, but stopping the transfusion is the immediate priority.
C. Administer epinephrine IM is incorrect because epinephrine is used for anaphylaxis, not hemolytic reactions.
D. Continue to monitor the infusion is incorrect because the transfusion must be stopped immediately to prevent worsening hemolysis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Initial stage of septic shock
Septic shock typically presents with warm, flushed skin in the early phase due to vasodilation. This client has cold and clammy skin, which is more consistent with hypovolemic shock.
B. Refractory stage of obstructive shock
Obstructive shock (e.g., from cardiac tamponade or pulmonary embolism) would present with jugular vein distention, muffled heart sounds, or severe respiratory distress, which are not seen in this case.
C. Progressive stage of hypovolemic shock
The client has classic signs of hypovolemic shock due to fluid loss (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea). The progressive stage is indicated by hypotension, tachycardia, and end-organ dysfunction (altered mental status, cool/clammy skin).
D. Compensatory stage of diabetic shock
"Diabetic shock" is not a standard classification of shock. The compensatory stage would still have an adequate blood pressure due to SNS activation, but this patient already has profound hypotension.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Sudden onset of chest pain and copious sputum
These are more consistent with pulmonary edema or a respiratory infection, not DIC.
B. Foul-smelling concentrated urine
This is suggestive of a urinary tract infection (UTI) or dehydration but is not a hallmark sign of DIC.
C. Oozing blood from IV sites & previous venipuncture sites
DIC is a disorder of excessive clotting and subsequent bleeding. Uncontrolled bleeding from IV sites, surgical wounds, or mucous membranes is a classic sign.
D. Reddened, inflamed central line catheter site
While redness around a catheter site may indicate infection, it is not a defining feature of DIC.
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