The client diagnosed with hyperlipidemia has experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which medication would the nurse anticipate being ordered for the client on discharge?

Warfarin

Simethicone

Simvastatin

Enoxaparin

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent blood clots. While it may be prescribed for certain patients at risk for stroke, it is not typically the first-line medication for managing TIA or hyperlipidemia. It is more often used in patients with specific types of atrial fibrillation or mechanical heart valves.
B.   Simethicone is an anti-foaming agent used to relieve gas and bloating. It does not have any role in managing hyperlipidemia or preventing strokes. Thus, this option is not relevant to the client's condition.
C.   Simvastatin is a statin medication used to lower cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events, including stroke. For a client with hyperlipidemia and a history of TIA, simvastatin would be an appropriate medication to help manage cholesterol and decrease the risk of future ischemic events.
D.   Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin used for anticoagulation, often in the context of deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. It may not be the first choice for TIA management. While it has its uses in preventing clot formation, it is not the standard treatment for a patient who has had a TIA.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Clopidogrel is not a pain medication; it is an antiplatelet agent used to reduce the risk of stroke and other cardiovascular events. It should be taken regularly, not on an as-needed basis.
B. Clopidogrel works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, which helps prevent the formation of blood clots that can lead to strokes. This understanding indicates that the client recognizes the purpose of the medication and its importance in managing their condition after a TIA.
C. Clopidogrel is not used to treat anxiety; it is primarily focused on reducing the risk of thrombotic events. This choice shows a misunderstanding of the medication's purpose.
D. Clopidogrel does not directly control blood pressure; it is used to prevent blood clots. While blood pressure management is essential in the context of stroke prevention, clopidogrel itself does not have a role in lowering blood pressure.

A. Postmenopausal bleeding B. Green, malodorous vaginal discharge C. Extreme abdominal pain with intercourse D. Swelling on the posterior of the vulva

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. One of the most common and concerning symptoms of uterine (endometrial) cancer is abnormal vaginal bleeding, particularly postmenopausal bleeding. Any bleeding after menopause is considered abnormal and can be an indicator of uterine cancer, warranting further investigation.
B. While a malodorous vaginal discharge can occur due to infections or other gynecological issues, it is not a primary symptom of uterine cancer. Uterine cancer more commonly presents with bleeding rather than discharge.
C. While some women with advanced uterine cancer may experience pelvic pain or pain during intercourse (dyspareunia), this symptom is not as characteristic or early in the disease process. It is more associated with conditions like endometriosis or pelvic inflammatory disease.
D. This is not a typical manifestation of uterine cancer. While vulvar swelling may be seen in cases of vulvar cancer or infections, it is not a common symptom associated with uterine cancer specifically. Symptoms related to uterine cancer primarily focus on abnormal bleeding.

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The client diagnosed with hyperlipidemia has experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which medication would the nurse anticipate being ordered for the client on discharge?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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