The client is diagnosed with a transient ischemic attack (TI

My heart rate will no longer be irregular.

This medication will help lower my blood pressure.

I will have decreased pain to my legs when I walk.

Clopidogrel will prevent clots from forming.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale

Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that prevents platelet aggregation but does not affect arrhythmias. It reduces clot formation risk, which is critical for patients with a history of TIA or stroke.

Choice B rationale

Clopidogrel does not lower blood pressure. It works by inhibiting platelet aggregation to prevent thrombus formation, not addressing the mechanisms of hypertension or blood pressure control.

Choice C rationale

Clopidogrel does not directly affect peripheral artery disease symptoms, such as leg pain. It is used to reduce the risk of thrombotic events like strokes and heart attacks by preventing platelet aggregation.

Choice D rationale

Clopidogrel inhibits platelet aggregation by blocking the ADP receptor on platelets, reducing the risk of clot formation. This is crucial for preventing ischemic events in patients with a history of TIA.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Hypertension is not the primary concern in cervical spinal cord injuries at C-3, where respiratory compromise due to diaphragm paralysis is the leading cause of complications or mortality.

Choice B rationale

Bradycardia can occur due to vagal stimulation in spinal injuries but is less life-threatening compared to the respiratory compromise caused by diaphragmatic paralysis.

Choice C rationale

Sepsis may develop in spinal cord injury patients, particularly from infections like pneumonia or urinary tract infections, but respiratory failure is the most acute concern at C-3.

Choice D rationale

Respiratory compromise occurs due to impaired diaphragm function at C-3, making it the primary cause of morbidity or mortality, necessitating prompt respiratory support and monitoring.

Correct Answer is ["0.1"]

Explanation

Step 1 is (225 mcg ÷ 1000 mcg) × 0.50 tablets.

Answer is 0.1 tablets.

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The client is diagnosed with a transient ischemic attack (TI

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a patient in the acute care setting with a spinal cord injury at the level of C-3. The nurse understands that the main cause of complications or death related to this injury includes:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a prescription for digoxin 225 mcg PO daily. Available is digoxin PO 0.50 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Correct Answer is ["0.1"]

Explanation

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