The client is diagnosed with a transient ischemic attack (TI

My heart rate will no longer be irregular.

This medication will help lower my blood pressure.

I will have decreased pain to my legs when I walk.

Clopidogrel will prevent clots from forming.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale

Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that prevents platelet aggregation but does not affect arrhythmias. It reduces clot formation risk, which is critical for patients with a history of TIA or stroke.

Choice B rationale

Clopidogrel does not lower blood pressure. It works by inhibiting platelet aggregation to prevent thrombus formation, not addressing the mechanisms of hypertension or blood pressure control.

Choice C rationale

Clopidogrel does not directly affect peripheral artery disease symptoms, such as leg pain. It is used to reduce the risk of thrombotic events like strokes and heart attacks by preventing platelet aggregation.

Choice D rationale

Clopidogrel inhibits platelet aggregation by blocking the ADP receptor on platelets, reducing the risk of clot formation. This is crucial for preventing ischemic events in patients with a history of TIA.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Stabilizing the cervical spine prevents further spinal injury in case of vertebral damage, which is a priority when managing trauma patients until specialized medical care becomes available.

Choice B rationale

While controlling bleeding is essential, it is secondary to stabilizing the cervical spine since the airway and neurological protection take precedence in trauma protocols.

Choice C rationale

The head tilt chin lift method should not be used if cervical spine injury is suspected, as it may exacerbate potential damage to the vertebrae or spinal cord.

Choice D rationale

While not moving the victim is critical, stabilization of the cervical spine is the primary intervention to prevent further injury before emergency assistance arrives.

A. Obtain a blood specimen to check for serum drug levels. B. Administer lorazepam IV to stop the convulsive activity. C. Check the client's blood pressure and heart rate.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Checking serum drug levels provides insight into compliance and effectiveness but doesn’t address immediate seizure cessation, prioritizing treatment over diagnostic assessment.

Choice B rationale

Administering lorazepam IV halts seizure activity quickly by enhancing GABA activity, calming neuronal excitation, and stabilizing the patient’s condition, reducing potential complications.

Choice C rationale

Monitoring vitals like blood pressure and heart rate is essential but doesn’t directly address convulsive activity, which requires immediate pharmacological intervention to prevent status epilepticus progression. .

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The client is diagnosed with a transient ischemic attack (TI

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A nurse is the first person on the scene of a motor vehicle accident.The victim was the driver and is in the driver's seat unconscious.The driver is breathing, has a pulse, and has minor lacerations on the head and face.What action should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client presents to the emergency department actively having seizure activity.The paramedics report the client has a history of epilepsy but her family doesn't know the names of her current medications.The priority for this patient is:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client with an intracranial aneurysm that resulted in a cerebral bleed is to be discharged to a rehabilitation facility.Which of the following rehabilitation outcomes would be appropriate for this client?

The nurse is caring for a patient with an acute brain injury.Which of the following sets of vital signs would concern the nurse about increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)?

The nurse is caring for a patient with epilepsy who has recently had a change in their prescribed medication combination.Which of the following options are priority to institute?

A client, who has tested positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), now presents with a CD4+ count of less than 200 cells/mm and pneumocystic pneumonia.A normal range for a CD4+ count is 500-1500 cells/mm.How would the nurse evaluate these findings? The client:

The nurse should educate clients who are HIV+ on proper nutrition, exercise, and stress reduction because these factors will: (Select All that Apply.)

The nurse is caring for a patient with an acute head injury.Which assessment finding would first alert the nurse that the patient is developing an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP)?