The client with rheumatoid arthritis is having her rheumatoid factor (RF) drawn while she is having a flareup of the disease. Which result is seen in clients with rheumatoid arthritis?
Decreased level of rheumatoid factor
A negative rheumatoid factor
A positive rheumatoid factor
Factor does not change
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: A decreased level of rheumatoid factor is not seen in clients with rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid factor is an antibody that is produced by the immune system and can bind to other antibodies. A high level of rheumatoid factor indicates an autoimmune disorder, such as rheumatoid arthritis.
Choice B reason: A negative rheumatoid factor is not seen in clients with rheumatoid arthritis. A negative rheumatoid factor means that the antibody is not detected in the blood. A negative rheumatoid factor does not rule out rheumatoid arthritis, but it may suggest a different type of arthritis or another condition.
Choice C reason: A positive rheumatoid factor is seen in clients with rheumatoid arthritis. A positive rheumatoid factor means that the antibody is detected in the blood. A positive rheumatoid factor is more likely to occur in clients with rheumatoid arthritis, especially during a flareup of the disease.
Choice D reason: Factor does not change is not seen in clients with rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid factor can vary over time and may change depending on the activity of the disease. Rheumatoid factor may increase during a flareup and decrease during remission.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A 44yearold prescribed antibiotics for pneumonia is not at the greatest risk for pressure injury development, because he or she does not have any major risk factors for pressure injury. Pressure injury is a localized damage to the skin and underlying tissues caused by pressure, shear, friction, or moisture. Antibiotics for pneumonia do not directly affect the skin integrity or blood circulation, nor do they impair the mobility or sensation of the client.
Choice B reason: A 26yearold bedridden client with a fractured leg is at a high risk for pressure injury development, but not the greatest, because he or she has only one major risk factor for pressure injury. Bedridden status is a major risk factor for pressure injury, because it causes prolonged pressure on the bony prominences, such as the sacrum, heels, or hips, which can impair blood flow and oxygen delivery to the skin and tissues. However, the client's age, fracture, and mobility may mitigate some of the risk, as he or she may have better skin elasticity, wound healing, and ability to reposition.
Choice C reason: A 65yearold with hemiparesis and incontinence is at the greatest risk for pressure injury development, because he or she has multiple major risk factors for pressure injury. Age is a risk factor for pressure injury, because it causes decreased skin elasticity, thickness, and vascularity, which can affect the skin's resilience and repair. Hemiparesis is a risk factor for pressure injury, because it causes reduced mobility, sensation, and muscle mass, which can affect the client's ability to reposition, feel pain, and maintain tissue perfusion. Incontinence is a risk factor for pressure injury, because it causes moisture, irritation, and infection of the skin, which can weaken the skin barrier and delay wound healing.
Choice D reason: A 78yearold requiring assistance to ambulate with a walker is at a moderate risk for pressure injury development, but not the greatest, because he or she has only one major risk factor for pressure injury. Age is a risk factor for pressure injury, as explained above. However, the client's ambulation and assistance may reduce some of the risk, as he or she may have less pressure, shear, and friction on the skin and tissues, and more blood circulation and oxygen delivery.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is not the best intervention because it is timeconsuming and may not be feasible in some situations. Writing down the message can also be impersonal and may not convey the tone or emotion of the speaker. The nurse should use verbal communication as much as possible and supplement it with nonverbal cues, such as gestures, facial expressions, and eye contact.
Choice B reason: This is an incorrect intervention because it can be annoying and ineffective. Talking loudly in the impaired ear can cause discomfort and distortion of the sound. It can also damage the remaining hearing in the ear. The nurse should not shout or raise their voice, but rather speak at a normal volume and enunciate clearly.
Choice C reason: This is the best intervention because it enhances the quality and clarity of the verbal message. Speaking slowly and clearly while facing the client allows the client to see the nurse's mouth movements and facial expressions, which can help them understand the words and the meaning. The nurse should also avoid covering their mouth or chewing gum while speaking.
Choice D reason: This is not the best intervention because it can be inconvenient and impractical. Talking in a regular voice in the good ear may require the nurse to move around the client or position themselves in a certain way. It can also make the client feel isolated or singled out. The nurse should try to communicate with the client in a way that is comfortable and respectful for both parties.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.