The drug of choice for methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is:
Gentamicin
Nafcillin
Vancomycin
Penicillin
The Correct Answer is C
A. Gentamicin: Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic effective against many bacteria, but it's not the first choice for MRSA. Vancomycin or other alternatives are preferred due to the rising resistance of MRSA to gentamicin.
B. Nafcillin: Nafcillin is a penicillin antibiotic, often used for penicillin-sensitive staphylococcal infections. However, it is not effective against MRSA, which is resistant to many penicillin-based antibiotics.
C. Vancomycin: Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic used to treat a variety of bacterial infections, including MRSA. It works by inhibiting cell wall synthesis in bacteria, making it effective against Gram-positive bacteria that have developed resistance to other antibiotics like methicillin (which MRSA has).
D. Penicillin: Penicillin is a group of antibiotics that includes drugs like amoxicillin and ampicillin. MRSA is resistant to penicillin-based antibiotics, so they are not effective against MRSA infections.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Bactericidal and bacteriostatic are used interchangeably.
This statement is incorrect. Bactericidal and bacteriostatic have distinct meanings in pharmacology and microbiology. Bactericidal means the drug kills bacteria, whereas bacteriostatic means the drug inhibits the growth of bacteria without killing them.
B. Bactericidal drugs are directly lethal to bacteria, and bacteriostatic drugs work to slow bacterial growth but do not cause cell death.
This statement is correct. Bactericidal drugs directly kill bacteria, leading to their death. Bacteriostatic drugs inhibit the growth of bacteria without causing their immediate death. Both types of drugs play different roles in the treatment of bacterial infections.
C. Bacteriostatic drugs are directly lethal to bacteria, and bactericidal drugs work to slow bacterial growth but do not cause cell death.
This statement is incorrect. It confuses the roles of bactericidal and bacteriostatic drugs. Bactericidal drugs directly kill bacteria, while bacteriostatic drugs inhibit bacterial growth without immediate cell death.
D. A bactericidal drug can cause death to the host, whereas a bacteriostatic drug only affects bacteria.
This statement is incorrect. Both bactericidal and bacteriostatic drugs primarily affect bacteria, not the host. The difference lies in how they affect bacteria: bactericidal drugs kill bacteria directly, and bacteriostatic drugs inhibit their growth.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Dermatitis and headaches: Prednisone use can sometimes cause skin issues, but dermatitis is not a common side effect. Headaches can also occur, but they are not specific to long-term prednisone therapy.
B. Heart failure and headaches: Prednisone does not directly cause heart failure. Headaches can occur but are not specific indicators of prednisone side effects.
C. Hyperglycemia and osteoporosis: Prednisone can lead to elevated blood glucose levels (hyperglycemia) and increased bone loss (osteoporosis) when used long-term. Regular monitoring is essential to manage these potential side effects.
D. Weight loss and hypoglycemia: Prednisone can cause weight gain rather than weight loss. Hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) is not a common side effect of prednisone; it typically causes hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) instead.
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