The emergency room nurse is reporting the location of a fracture to the client's primary car. When stating the location of the fracture on the long shaft of the femur, the nurse would be most correct to state which terminology locating the fractured site?

The fracture is on the epiphyses.

The fracture is on the tuberosity.

The fracture is on the diaphysis.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

The fracture is on the diaphysis. The femur, which is the thigh bone, is made up of three parts: the head, neck, and diaphysis. The diaphysis is the long, cylindrical part of the bone between the proximal and distal ends. When reporting the location of a fracture on the femur, it is most accurate to describe the location as being on the diaphysis.

Choice A, the fracture is on the epiphyses, is incorrect because the epiphyses are the rounded ends of the bone and are not typically involved in long bone fractures.

Choice B, the fracture is on the tuberosity, is incorrect because the tuberosity is a bony prominence where muscles attach and is not typically involved in long bone fractures.

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Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]

Explanation

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess a patient's level of consciousness following a traumatic brain injury. It is based on three categories: eye-opening, verbal response, and motor response. The tool scores a patient from 3 to 15, with 15 being the best possible score. A score of 8 or less indicates a severe brain injury. The tool does not assess thought process or cognitive ability.

A. Reduced tensile strength. B. Loss of function. C. Lack of mobility. D. Allergic reaction.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Reduced tensile strength. A history of dislocations of the same joint may be due to an insufficient deposit of collagen during the healing process. Collagen is a protein that provides tensile strength to connective tissues such as tendons and ligaments. Reduced tensile strength may result in instability and dislocation of joints.

Option B: Loss of function is not a correct answer as it is a general term and can occur due to various reasons such as damage to muscles or nerves.

Option C: Lack of mobility is not a correct answer as it is similar to loss of function and does not explain the history of dislocations.

Option D: Allergic reaction is not a correct answer as it is not related to dislocations of joints.

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The emergency room nurse is reporting the location of a fracture to the client's primary car. When stating the location of the fracture on the long shaft of the femur, the nurse would be most correct to state which terminology locating the fractured site?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a client with a neurological deficit. In assessing the client, the nurse will utilize the standard Glasgow Coma Scale. What will the nurse be assessing on this patient? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]

Explanation

A client has a history of dislocations of the same joint. The nurse understands that this is most likely due to an insufficient deposit of collagen during the healing process leading to which of the following?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing the history along with physical examination of a client with a suspected malignant tumor of the bladder. Which finding would the nurse identify as the most common initial symptom?

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