The nurse is caring for a young woman who is struggling with weight loss issues without apparent physical cause. Which is the most likely nursing assessment for this nutritional disorder in which normal body weight is not maintained?

Kwashiorkor.

Anorexia nervosa.

Crohn's disease.

Bulimia nervosa.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Anorexia nervosa is a nutritional disorder characterized by a distorted body image and fear of weight gain, leading to an abnormally low body weight. Clients with anorexia nervosa may also engage in binge eating and purging behaviors.

Choice A is incorrect because Kwashiorkor is a type of protein-energy malnutrition caused by a severe protein deficiency.

Choice C is incorrect because Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease.

Choice D is incorrect because Bulimia nervosa is a nutritional disorder characterized by binge eating and purging behaviors.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

cryptorchidism as an infant. Cryptorchidism, or undescended testicles, is a known risk factor for testicular cancer. During fetal development, the testicles form in the abdomen and descend into the scrotum before birth. Failure of one or both testicles to descend into the scrotum can increase the risk of testicular cancer later in life. Therefore, a history of cryptorchidism as an infant is the most important assessment finding to identify clients at higher risk of developing testicular cancer.

Choice A, previous sexually transmitted infection (STI), is incorrect because although STIs can increase the risk of certain types of cancer, they are not a significant risk factor for testicular cancer.

Choice C, low sperm count, is incorrect because although low sperm count can be associated with testicular cancer, it is not a reliable indicator for determining a higher risk for testicular cancer. Low sperm count may also be caused by various other factors, such as hormonal imbalances, infections, varicocele, and genetic abnormalities. While it is important to monitor and treat low sperm count, it is not a definitive indicator of testicular cancer risk.

A. The fracture is on the epiphyses. B. The fracture is on the tuberosity. C. The fracture is on the diaphysis.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The fracture is on the diaphysis. The femur, which is the thigh bone, is made up of three parts: the head, neck, and diaphysis. The diaphysis is the long, cylindrical part of the bone between the proximal and distal ends. When reporting the location of a fracture on the femur, it is most accurate to describe the location as being on the diaphysis.

Choice A, the fracture is on the epiphyses, is incorrect because the epiphyses are the rounded ends of the bone and are not typically involved in long bone fractures.

Choice B, the fracture is on the tuberosity, is incorrect because the tuberosity is a bony prominence where muscles attach and is not typically involved in long bone fractures.

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The nurse is caring for a young woman who is struggling with weight loss issues without apparent physical cause. Which is the most likely nursing assessment for this nutritional disorder in which normal body weight is not maintained?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which assessment finding is most important in determining which client has a higher risk for developing testicular cancer?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The emergency room nurse is reporting the location of a fracture to the client's primary car. When stating the location of the fracture on the long shaft of the femur, the nurse would be most correct to state which terminology locating the fractured site?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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