The healthcare provider gives a verbal prescription for 2 mg of intravenous morphine to be given to a client every 4 hours as needed for severe pain. How should the nurse document the prescription?

Morphine 2.0 mg IV every four hours for severe pain.

Morphine 2 mg IV every 4 hr PRN for severe pain.

IV MS 2 mg every 4 hr as needed for severe pain.

IV MS 2.0 mg every 4 hours PRN for severe pain.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. The use of "2.0 mg" is incorrect because trailing zeros can lead to dosage errors. The correct documentation should avoid trailing zeros to prevent misinterpretation.
B. "Morphine 2 mg IV every 4 hr PRN for severe pain" is the correct format. It uses the full name of the drug, avoids abbreviations that could be confused, and follows best practices for documenting as-needed (PRN) medications.
C. Using "MS" instead of "morphine" is not recommended because "MS" can be confused with magnesium sulfate or other medications. The full drug name should always be used.
D. Similar to option A, the use of "2.0 mg" includes a trailing zero, which should be avoided to reduce the risk of errors in medication administration.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Engaging the client in relaxation exercises may be helpful but should be considered after addressing potential physical causes of discomfort, such as positioning.
B. Offering to sit with the client is supportive, but the primary issue of physical discomfort should be addressed first.
C. Administering a PRN analgesic may be necessary if the discomfort persists, but repositioning the client is a less invasive intervention to try first.
D. Assisting the client to a different position is the first action the nurse should take. A change in position can often alleviate discomfort for bedfast clients and is a simple, non-invasive intervention.

A. Reduce the amount of pressure being applied on the top of the foot. B. Palpate the site on the inner side of the ankle below the medial malleolus. C. Obtain a doppler stethoscope to auscultate the pulse at the same site. D. Document in the nurses' notes that the dorsalis pedis pulse is not palpable.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Reducing the amount of pressure applied is the appropriate next step because excessive pressure can occlude the pulse, making it difficult to feel. Lightening the pressure may help the nurse detect the pulse.
B. Palpating the posterior tibial pulse (below the medial malleolus) is another option if the dorsalis pedis pulse is not palpable, but it should be attempted only after ensuring that proper technique was used to feel the dorsalis pedis pulse.
C. Using a Doppler stethoscope is a good option if the pulse remains non-palpable after proper technique has been used. However, it is not the immediate next step.
D. Documenting that the dorsalis pedis pulse is not palpable should be done after all appropriate steps, including adjusting the pressure and possibly using a Doppler, have been attempted.

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The healthcare provider gives a verbal prescription for 2 mg of intravenous morphine to be given to a client every 4 hours as needed for severe pain. How should the nurse document the prescription?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A bedfast female client awakens during the night, reporting to the nurse that she is "uncomfortable." What action should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

To assess a client's dorsalis pedis pulse, the nurse applies firm pressure over the top of the foot between the extension tendons of the great and first toes, but does not feel a pulsation. Which action should the nurse take next?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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