The healthcare provider orders Compazine 10 mg IM now. The concentration available is Compazine 5 mg/mL. How many mL will the patient receive?
0.5 mL
4 mL
1 mL
2 mL
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: For 10 mg at 5 mg/mL: 10 ÷ 5 = 2 mL. Choice A (0.5 mL) delivers 2.5 mg (0.5 × 5), underdosing Compazine, which may fail to control nausea or psychosis, making this choice incorrect for the prescribed dose.
Choice B reason: The correct volume is 10 mg ÷ 5 mg/mL = 2 mL. Choice B (4 mL) delivers 20 mg (4 × 5), overdosing Compazine, risking extrapyramidal symptoms or sedation, making this choice incorrect and potentially harmful for safe administration.
Choice C reason: For 10 mg, the volume is 2 mL (10 ÷ 5). Choice C (1 mL) delivers 5 mg (1 × 5), underdosing Compazine, which could be ineffective for nausea or psychiatric symptoms, making this choice inadequate for the ordered dose.
Choice D reason: Calculating 10 mg ÷ 5 mg/mL = 2 mL accurately delivers the ordered 10 mg of Compazine (prochlorperazine) for nausea or psychosis. This ensures therapeutic efficacy without overdose, aligning with safe intramuscular administration, making this the correct choice.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Metabolic acidosis has low pH and HCO3-. Normal pH (7.41) and high HCO3- (30) suggest alkalosis, not acidosis, so this is incorrect for the ABG values.
Choice B reason: Respiratory acidosis has high PaCO2 and low pH. Normal pH and high HCO3- indicate metabolic alkalosis, not respiratory acidosis, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Respiratory alkalosis has low PaCO2 and high pH. High PaCO2 (46) and HCO3- rule this out, pointing to metabolic alkalosis, so this is incorrect.
Choice D reason: Normal pH (7.41), high PaCO2 (46), and high HCO3- (30) indicate metabolic alkalosis fully compensated by respiratory CO2 retention. This is correct.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Pentazocine is less effective for severe, chronic pain and has mixed agonist-antagonist effects. Fentanyl is stronger for opioid-tolerant patients, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Hydrocodone is weaker than oxycodone and inadequate for severe, resistant pain. Fentanyl’s potency suits chronic cancer pain, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Fentanyl transdermal is potent, long-acting, and ideal for severe, chronic cancer pain in opioid-tolerant patients. It’s appropriate here, making it the correct choice.
Choice D reason: Meperidine is not recommended for chronic pain due to neurotoxic metabolites. Fentanyl is safer and more effective, so this is incorrect.
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