A nurse is giving an enteral medication. The patient asks why this method is preferable for this drug. How will the nurse reply?

This route allows more rapid absorption of the drug

This route prevents inactivation of the drug by digestive enzymes

This route is the best way to control serum drug levels

This route is safer, less expensive, and more convenient

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Enteral (oral) administration typically has slower absorption than intravenous routes due to first-pass metabolism in the liver and variable gastric emptying. While effective for many drugs, it’s not faster than parenteral routes, making this choice incorrect for describing the primary advantage of enteral administration.

Choice B reason: Some enteral drugs are inactivated by digestive enzymes or liver metabolism (first-pass effect), not prevented. Special formulations (e.g., enteric-coated) may protect drugs, but this isn’t a general advantage of the enteral route, which often faces enzymatic degradation, making this choice inaccurate.

Choice C reason: Enteral administration does not offer superior control of serum drug levels compared to intravenous routes, which provide precise dosing and immediate bioavailability. Oral drugs face variable absorption and first-pass metabolism, leading to less predictable levels, making this choice incorrect for enteral benefits.

Choice D reason: Enteral administration is safer (avoids injection risks like infection), less expensive (no need for sterile equipment), and more convenient (self-administered at home). These advantages make it preferable for many drugs, aligning with patient compliance and cost-effectiveness, making this the correct choice for the nurse’s response.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason is that Zithromax (azithromycin) is not linked to cancer in women; this is inaccurate. QT prolongation is a known risk, especially in elderly patients with cardiac issues, so this is incorrect.

Choice B reason: Azithromycin can prolong the QT interval, risking arrhythmias, particularly in older women with heart rhythm issues. This explains the different prescribing, making it the correct choice.

Choice C reason: Zithromax’s effectiveness is not gender-specific; efficacy depends on the infection, not sex. The cardiac risk is the concern, so this is incorrect for the explanation.

Choice D reason: Cost or insurance is irrelevant to the medical decision. QT prolongation risk in this patient’s profile drives the choice, so this is incorrect.

A. Myocardial contractility B. Cardiac afterload C. Venous return D. Cardiac preload

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Beta 1-adrenergic drugs, like dobutamine, stimulate beta-1 receptors in the heart, increasing cyclic AMP and calcium influx, enhancing myocardial contractility. This increases stroke volume by strengthening heart contractions, directly improving cardiac output, making this the correct choice for the drug’s mechanism of action.

Choice B reason: Cardiac afterload is the resistance the heart pumps against. Beta 1-adrenergic drugs don’t directly reduce afterload; they increase contractility. Increasing afterload would decrease stroke volume, opposing the drug’s purpose, making this choice incorrect for the drug’s effect on stroke volume.

Choice C reason: Venous return affects preload, not directly influenced by beta 1-adrenergic drugs. These drugs enhance contractility, increasing stroke volume independently of venous return. While preload impacts output, it’s not the primary mechanism of beta-1 stimulation, making this choice incorrect.

Choice D reason: Cardiac preload is the initial stretch of the heart, influenced by venous return. Beta 1-adrenergic drugs increase contractility, not preload, to boost stroke volume. Preload changes are secondary and not the primary action of these drugs, making this choice incorrect.

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A nurse is giving an enteral medication. The patient asks why this method is preferable for this drug. How will the nurse reply?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A female patient is questioning the nurse on why she can’t explain the same 5-day antibiotic (Zithromax) that her husband received. The patient is 65 with a history of and has an abnormal heart rhythm. The nurse explains that:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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