What occurs when a drug binds to a receptor in the body?
It increases or decreases the activity of that receptor.
It alters the receptor to become non-responsive to its usual endogenous molecules.
It prevents the action of the receptor by altering its response to chemical mediators.
It gives the receptor a new function.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Drug-receptor binding either activates (agonists) or inhibits (antagonists) receptor activity, altering physiological responses. This is the primary effect, making it the correct choice for receptor interaction.
Choice B reason: Drugs do not permanently alter receptors non-responsive; they modulate activity temporarily. Non-responsiveness may occur with chronic use, but it’s not the primary effect, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Preventing receptor action is specific to antagonists, not all drugs. drugs bind to receptors. Binding broadly affects activity, so this is incorrect for the general effect of receptor binding.
Choice D reason: Drugs do not give receptors new functions; they enhance or block existing ones. ones. Activity modulation is the key effect, making this incorrect for what occurs during binding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, reduces blood volume, often lowering blood pressure. Monitoring for hypotension is critical to prevent dizziness or shock, making this the correct manifestation to observe.
Choice B reason: Decreased temperature is not a common effect of furosemide, which primarily affects fluid balance. Blood pressure changes are more relevant, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Furosemide may increase heart rate due to volume loss, not decrease pulse. Hypotension is a primary concern, making this incorrect for the expected manifestation.
Choice D reason: Decreased respiratory rate is unrelated to furosemide, which may improve breathing in heart failure but not slow respiration. Blood pressure is key, so this is incorrect.
Correct Answer is ["B","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Long-term proton pump inhibitor (PPI) use has a weak, controversial association with gastric cancer due to hypergastrinemia, but evidence is inconclusive. In older patients, risks like osteoporosis and nutrient deficiencies are more established and immediate concerns, making this choice less consistently worrisome compared to others.
Choice B reason: PPIs reduce gastric acid, impairing calcium absorption, which increases osteoporosis risk in older patients. Chronic use is linked to decreased bone density and higher fracture risk, particularly in the elderly, due to disrupted mineral homeostasis, making this a significant and correct adverse effect to monitor.
Choice C reason: PPIs inhibit acid production, reducing absorption of vitamin B12, magnesium, and iron, leading to deficiencies in older patients. These can cause anemia, neurological issues, or hypomagnesemia, which are particularly concerning in the elderly due to comorbidities, making this a correct and critical adverse effect.
Choice D reason: Headaches are a possible PPI side effect but are less common and less severe in older patients compared to osteoporosis, nutrient deficiencies, or drug interactions. They don’t pose a significant long-term risk or require specific monitoring, making this choice incorrect for major concerns.
Choice E reason: PPIs interact with drugs like clopidogrel, reducing its efficacy by inhibiting CYP2C19, and affect absorption of drugs requiring acidic environments. In older patients with polypharmacy, these interactions increase risks of adverse outcomes, making this a significant and correct concern for PPI use.
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