The nurse administers atropine 0.5 mg IV to a client. Which action should be performed after the client has received this medication?

Administer timolol eye drops to both eyes

Insert an indwelling catheter

Administer an antidiarrheal medication

Provide frequent oral care

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   Timolol eye drops are not indicated following the administration of atropine, as atropine has no effect on intraocular pressure.
B.   Inserting an indwelling catheter is not necessary for the administration of atropine, which is used to treat bradycardia, not urinary retention.
C.   Administering an antidiarrheal medication is unrelated to atropine administration; atropine typically causes dry mouth rather than diarrhea.
D.   Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that decreases saliva production, which can lead to dry mouth and discomfort. Frequent oral care is important to prevent oral mucosal irritation and discomfort for the client.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. INR = 3.7: The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is a measure of blood clotting. An INR greater than
3.0 indicates that the blood is not clotting properly, which can be caused by warfarin overdose. An elevated INR requires FFP to correct coagulopathy.
B. Hemoglobin = 6.3g/dL: This is low, indicating anemia, but it is not directly related to warfarin overdose. The primary issue here is coagulopathy, not anemia.
C. Fibrinogen = 90mg/dL: Fibrinogen levels may be decreased in various conditions, but this alone does not necessarily require additional FFP unless it’s below a critical threshold. Fibrinogen is not the main marker for warfarin overdose.
D. Platelets = 101,000 mm3: This platelet count is within the lower end of the normal range but does not indicate that more FFP is needed in response to warfarin overdose.

A. diltiazem. B. nitroglycerine. C. verapamil. D. morphine.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can be used to manage conditions like atrial fibrillation or hypertension by slowing the heart rate and reducing blood pressure. However, it may not be the most appropriate drug in the acute setting for heart failure with dyspnea.
B. Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator that helps reduce preload and afterload, which can be beneficial in heart failure. However, it primarily works by reducing the workload on the heart and may help with fluid overload but may not directly address anxiety.
C. Verapamil is another calcium channel blocker that slows the heart rate and reduces the heart's workload. While it may be useful for controlling tachyarrhythmias, it is not the best option for managing acute heart failure with severe dyspnea and anxiety.
D. Morphine is an opioid that can be used in acute heart failure to reduce both anxiety and respiratory distress. It works by reducing the sympathetic nervous system response, decreasing heart rate and blood pressure, and providing a sense of calm, which reduces anxiety. It also reduces preload by venodilation and helps manage severe dyspnea.

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LAB	Result	Normal Range
Potassium	2.8 mEq/L	3.5-5.3mEq/L
Sodium	133 mEq/L	135-145 mEqL
Chloride	90 mEq/L	97-107 mEqL
Glucose	200 mg/dL	70mg/dL to 110mg/dL
Magnesium	2.5 mg/dL	1.6-2.2 mg/dL
Calcium	8.0 mg/dL	8.2-10.2 mg/dL:

			Male: 14- 17.3 g/dL
Hematocrit	26%	24%	Female: 36%-48% Male: 42%-52%
Platelets	35,000mm3	20,000mm3	150,000- 450,000mm3
RBC	4.5 mm3	3mm3	Female: 4.01-5.51 million/mm3 Male: 4.51-

The nurse administers atropine 0.5 mg IV to a client. Which action should be performed after the client has received this medication?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a client who received a transfusion of Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) for an acute GI bleed related to accidental wantarin overdose. Which laboratory result would indicate the need for an additional unit of Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) to correct the problem caused by the overdose?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client with acute heart failure who is severely dyspneic and extremely anxious. The nurse anticipates that increased cardiac output and decreased anxiety may be promoted by the IV administration of:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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