The nurse is performing an admission assessment of an older adult client with a history of chronic heart failure. The client exhibits +2 pitting edema of the ankles and bibasilar crackles. Based on these findings what action should the nurse take next?

weigh the client to obtain a baseline for comparison

Insert an indwelling catheter

Draw blood for chemistry studies and a CBC

Administer furosemide 40mg PO

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   Weighing the client provides an important baseline for monitoring fluid retention and determining the effectiveness of treatments such as diuretics. Rapid changes in weight can indicate worsening heart failure and fluid accumulation.
B.   Inserting an indwelling catheter is not indicated unless there are concerns about urinary retention or output, which are not the priority here.
C.   Drawing blood for chemistry studies and a CBC is important but it does not directly address the immediate concern of fluid retention and worsening heart failure.
D.   Administering furosemide may be necessary depending on the client's condition, but first establishing a baseline weight is important before making further treatment decisions.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Petechiae (small, pinpoint hemorrhages) are a common manifestation of DIC due to the excessive clotting and subsequent breakdown of clotting factors, leading to bleeding into the skin.
B. Diarrhea is not typically a primary symptom of DIC, although gastrointestinal bleeding can occur in severe cases.
C. Intractable vomiting is not characteristic of DIC, although it could occur in clients with severe bleeding or complications.
D. Urinary incontinence is not a direct manifestation of DIC, although it could occur secondary to neurological or other systemic complications.

A. Hemoglobin 10.1 g/di (normal Female: 11.7-15.5 g/dL: Male: 14-17.3 g/dL B. Brain natriuretic peptide 410 pg/mL (normal less than 100 pg/mL.) C. Sodium 132 mEq/L (normal 135 - 145 mEq/L) D. Fibrinogen level 201 mg/dL (normal 200-400 mg/dL)

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. A low hemoglobin level indicates anemia, not heart failure. While anemia can exacerbate heart failure, it is not the primary indicator.
B. BNP is a biomarker that is elevated in response to heart failure. A level above 100 pg/mL is suggestive of heart failure, and 410 pg/mL indicates significant heart stress and likely acute heart failure.
C. A low sodium level (hyponatremia) can occur in heart failure, but it is not specific enough to confirm the diagnosis. BNP is a more direct indicator of heart failure.
D. This is a normal fibrinogen level and does not indicate heart failure. Fibrinogen is more associated with clotting disorders.

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The nurse is performing an admission assessment of an older adult client with a history of chronic heart failure. The client exhibits +2 pitting edema of the ankles and bibasilar crackles. Based on these findings what action should the nurse take next?

Nursing Test Bank

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