The nurse administers IV nitroglycerin to a client diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction. In evaluating the effectiveness of this intervention, the nurse should monitor for:
decrease in heart rate.
relief of chest pain.
decrease in cardiac dysrhythmias.
decrease in blood pressure.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Decrease in heart rate: While nitroglycerin can sometimes cause reflex tachycardia (an increase in heart rate) as a compensatory mechanism in response to a decrease in blood pressure, its primary effect is on reducing myocardial oxygen demand through vasodilation. Although heart rate may decrease in some situations due to improved perfusion or as a secondary response to pain relief, a decrease in heart rate is not the most reliable or immediate indicator of effectiveness in this context. The relief of chest pain is a more direct measure of the drug's impact.
B. Relief of chest pain: Nitroglycerin works by dilating blood vessels, which reduces myocardial oxygen demand and improves blood flow to the heart, particularly in cases of acute myocardial infarction (MI). The primary therapeutic goal is to relieve chest pain (angina) and reduce the workload of the heart. Monitoring for relief of chest pain is the most direct and important indicator of the medication's effectiveness. If the chest pain decreases or resolves, it suggests that the medication is helping to alleviate the ischemia caused by the MI.
C. Decrease in cardiac dysrhythmias: Nitroglycerin is not primarily used to treat dysrhythmias, although improved perfusion and reduced myocardial oxygen demand may indirectly reduce the occurrence of dysrhythmias in some cases. However, a decrease in dysrhythmias is not a primary goal of nitroglycerin therapy, and the nurse should not primarily monitor for this outcome. Any dysrhythmias should be managed with other specific interventions if needed.
D. Decrease in blood pressure: Nitroglycerin's vasodilatory effect does lead to a reduction in blood pressure, particularly in patients with high blood pressure or in the context of a myocardial infarction. However, excessive hypotension can be dangerous and may lead to inadequate perfusion of vital organs. The nurse must monitor blood pressure closely to avoid hypotension, but a decrease in blood pressure is not the main goal of therapy. The primary objective is to relieve the chest pain associated with the MI. If blood pressure drops too low, it may indicate a need to adjust the dose or discontinue the nitroglycerin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Fluid bolus and IV heparin:
A fluid bolus and IV heparin may be used in certain cardiovascular conditions, such as hypotension or in the setting of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) to prevent clot formation. However, in this case, the client is experiencing chest pain with ST segment elevations, a sign of ongoing ischemia, which suggests that the problem may be related to inadequate blood flow to the heart. Fluid boluses could exacerbate the condition if the heart's function is compromised, and IV heparin alone would not address the root cause of the ischemia. Hence, this is not the most appropriate intervention at this time.
B) A medical prescription for a stat chest x-ray:
A chest x-ray would not be immediately indicated in this scenario. The client's symptoms of chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST segment elevations on the ECG are indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction, not a respiratory or structural lung issue that would be visualized on an x-ray. The priority here is to address the myocardial ischemia, which could be due to a clot or reocclusion in the coronary artery. A stat chest x-ray would not address the underlying cardiac issue, so this is not the best choice.
C) Coronary artery bypass (CABG) surgery if there is no improvement in 12 hours:
While CABG is an option for clients with severe coronary artery disease, it is generally considered when PCI is not successful or when there are multiple blockages that cannot be stented. In this situation, since the client has just undergone PCI and is now experiencing signs of reocclusion (e.g., chest pain, ST segment elevations), a repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty is more appropriate and urgent. Waiting 12 hours would delay treatment and risk further myocardial damage. CABG would not be the first intervention after a failed PCI within hours of the procedure.
D) Repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty:
This is the most appropriate intervention. The client's symptoms (chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST segment elevations) are suggestive of reocclusion of the stented artery, a complication that can occur after PCI. Reocclusion can cause further myocardial ischemia and infarction. A repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty would aim to reopen the blocked artery and restore blood flow to the myocardium, which is the immediate priority in this situation. This intervention can help resolve the ischemia and prevent further damage to the heart muscle.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Use pyridostigmine as needed to relieve symptoms of muscle weakness and fatigue: Pyridostigmine should not be used on an "as-needed" basis, as it is a long-acting medication that works by maintaining a steady level of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. The client needs to take the medication regularly at prescribed intervals, not sporadically, to maintain consistent symptom control. This statement reflects a misunderstanding of the medication's use.
B. Be able to crush the sustained release tablet because of difficulty swallowing: Sustained-release (or extended-release) tablets should not be crushed because doing so can cause the medication to be released too quickly, leading to potential side effects or overdose. If the client has difficulty swallowing, an alternative form of the medication, such as a liquid or split tablet, should be considered. This statement reflects a lack of understanding regarding the proper administration of the medication.
C. Skip a dose if I have symptoms of fatigue to minimize side effects of the medications: Skipping doses of pyridostigmine is not appropriate. The medication should be taken as prescribed, even if the client feels fatigued. Fatigue is a symptom of myasthenia gravis, not necessarily a side effect of the medication. Consistent dosing is important for controlling the disease and preventing worsening of symptoms. Skipping doses can lead to inadequate symptom control and potential exacerbation of weakness.
D. Take pyridostigmine 30-60 minutes before meals to improve muscle function: This statement indicates that the client understands the appropriate use of pyridostigmine for managing myasthenia gravis (MG). Pyridostigmine is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that helps improve neuromuscular transmission, and it is typically taken 30-60 minutes before meals. This timing helps optimize muscle strength during the period when the client is eating, as muscle weakness can make swallowing more difficult. By taking the medication before meals, the client is more likely to experience improved muscle function when needed most.
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