The nurse is caring for a client with acute respiratory failure who has been placed on bi-level positive airway pressure (BIPAP) for adequate ventilation. The client complains of nausea and begins to vomit. The priority nursing intervention would be:

remove the BIPAP mask.

Assist the client to a side lying position.

administer ondansetron intravenously (IV).

notify the primary care provider.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Remove the BIPAP mask:
While removing the BIPAP mask may seem like a reasonable action to take in response to vomiting, it is not the immediate priority. The most urgent issue in this scenario is preventing aspiration and maintaining the client’s airway. Removing the mask may be necessary later for resuscitation or further interventions, but the first priority is protecting the airway and preventing aspiration pneumonia, which is best done by positioning the client appropriately. BIPAP should only be removed if the client's airway cannot be maintained, or if there is a need for intubation or other advanced airway management.

B. Assist the client to a side-lying position: When a client on BIPAP (bi-level positive airway pressure) begins to vomit, the priority nursing intervention is to protect the airway and prevent aspiration. The side-lying position is the most effective way to prevent aspiration of vomit into the lungs, as it allows the contents to drain from the mouth and reduces the risk of airway obstruction. This position also ensures that the client’s airway remains open while minimizing the risk of choking or aspiration pneumonia. The side-lying position is crucial in managing nausea and vomiting in clients on non-invasive ventilation, like BIPAP.

C. Administer ondansetron intravenously (IV):
Ondansetron is an effective antiemetic and may be appropriate to administer if the client’s nausea continues. However, nausea and vomiting are secondary concerns in this situation compared to airway protection. The first priority is to position the client to prevent aspiration of vomit. Once the client is in a safe position, ondansetron may be administered to address the nausea and prevent further vomiting, but this does not address the immediate airway risk.

D. Notify the primary care provider:
While notifying the healthcare provider may be necessary at some point, the priority nursing intervention is to manage the immediate concern of the client vomiting while on BIPAP. The primary concern at this point is protecting the airway and preventing aspiration. The healthcare provider may need to be informed about the situation, but the nurse must first ensure the client's safety through appropriate positioning.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Administer antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications to prevent further clot formation:
While antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications are essential in the management of STEMI to reduce the risk of further clot formation, they are not the primary goal of treatment in the immediate phase. These medications are typically administered before or during the procedure (such as during cardiac catheterization) to prevent new clots, but the primary objective is to restore blood flow to the heart muscle through reperfusion therapy, either by angioplasty or thrombolytics.

B) Relieve the blockage in the coronary artery and restore blood flow to the heart muscle:
This is the primary goal of treatment in STEMI. The most urgent intervention for a client with an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is to relieve the blockage in the coronary artery and restore blood flow to the ischemic heart muscle. This is typically achieved through percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) via cardiac catheterization, which involves either angioplasty (ballooning the artery) or stent placement. Restoring blood flow as quickly as possible reduces the extent of myocardial damage, improves the prognosis, and prevents complications like heart failure.

C) Provide pain relief and initiate cardiac rehabilitation:
Pain relief is important in the initial management of STEMI, typically with nitroglycerin and opioids for chest pain. However, the immediate goal in the ED is to address the underlying cause of the chest pain, which is the blockage of blood flow. Cardiac rehabilitation, while essential for long-term recovery, is not the immediate goal of treatment during the acute phase of a STEMI. The primary focus should be on restoring circulation to the affected myocardium.

D) Stabilize the client's blood pressure and administer thrombolytic therapy:
Stabilizing the client’s blood pressure is important, especially if the client is hypotensive, but it is not the main treatment goal. Thrombolytic therapy (clot-busting medications) is an option if PCI is not available or if it needs to be done within a certain time frame; however, the current best practice in STEMI is to perform PCI as soon as possible. Thrombolytics are typically used when PCI is not immediately available, but the ideal treatment is to restore blood flow through catheterization in a timely manner, as it is more effective than thrombolytic therapy at re-opening the blocked artery.

A. Fluid bolus and IV heparin B. A medical prescription for a stat chest x-ray C. Coronary artery bypass (CABG) surgery if there is no improvement in 12 hours D. Repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Fluid bolus and IV heparin:
A fluid bolus and IV heparin may be used in certain cardiovascular conditions, such as hypotension or in the setting of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) to prevent clot formation. However, in this case, the client is experiencing chest pain with ST segment elevations, a sign of ongoing ischemia, which suggests that the problem may be related to inadequate blood flow to the heart. Fluid boluses could exacerbate the condition if the heart's function is compromised, and IV heparin alone would not address the root cause of the ischemia. Hence, this is not the most appropriate intervention at this time.

B) A medical prescription for a stat chest x-ray:
A chest x-ray would not be immediately indicated in this scenario. The client's symptoms of chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST segment elevations on the ECG are indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction, not a respiratory or structural lung issue that would be visualized on an x-ray. The priority here is to address the myocardial ischemia, which could be due to a clot or reocclusion in the coronary artery. A stat chest x-ray would not address the underlying cardiac issue, so this is not the best choice.

C) Coronary artery bypass (CABG) surgery if there is no improvement in 12 hours:
While CABG is an option for clients with severe coronary artery disease, it is generally considered when PCI is not successful or when there are multiple blockages that cannot be stented. In this situation, since the client has just undergone PCI and is now experiencing signs of reocclusion (e.g., chest pain, ST segment elevations), a repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty is more appropriate and urgent. Waiting 12 hours would delay treatment and risk further myocardial damage. CABG would not be the first intervention after a failed PCI within hours of the procedure.

D) Repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty:
This is the most appropriate intervention. The client's symptoms (chest pain, diaphoresis, and ST segment elevations) are suggestive of reocclusion of the stented artery, a complication that can occur after PCI. Reocclusion can cause further myocardial ischemia and infarction. A repeat PCI with thrombectomy or angioplasty would aim to reopen the blocked artery and restore blood flow to the myocardium, which is the immediate priority in this situation. This intervention can help resolve the ischemia and prevent further damage to the heart muscle.

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The nurse is caring for a client with acute respiratory failure who has been placed on bi-level positive airway pressure (BIPAP) for adequate ventilation. The client complains of nausea and begins to vomit. The priority nursing intervention would be:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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