The nurse administers ophthalmic timolol to a client with glaucoma. The client routinely takes carvedilol, spironolactone, and ibuprofen daily. Which medication(s) should the nurse withhold? Select all that apply.
Any antianxiety medications.
Over-the-counter oral antipyretics.
Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs.
Other beta-adrenergic blocker agents.
Oral and subcutaneous anticoagulants.
Correct Answer : C,D
Rationale:
A. Any antianxiety medications: Antianxiety medications are not contraindicated with ophthalmic timolol. Unless they directly impact heart rate or blood pressure significantly, they are generally safe to continue in clients with glaucoma using topical beta blockers.
B. Over-the-counter oral antipyretics: Oral antipyretics like acetaminophen are not known to interact adversely with timolol. These medications can be used safely unless otherwise contraindicated for specific patient conditions like liver disease.
C. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs: NSAIDs such as ibuprofen, when used long-term with beta blockers like timolol or carvedilol, may blunt the antihypertensive effect and increase renal risk, especially in clients on diuretics like spironolactone. This triple combination increases the chance of nephrotoxicity.
D. Other beta-adrenergic blocker agents: Using timolol with systemic beta blockers like carvedilol increases the risk of bradycardia, hypotension, and heart block. Though timolol is topical, systemic absorption can still occur, requiring caution when combining with other beta-blockers.
E. Oral and subcutaneous anticoagulants: There is no direct contraindication between timolol and anticoagulants. Unless the client has bleeding risks associated with other therapies or conditions, concurrent use is generally acceptable.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Provide support on the unaffected side: Supporting from the unaffected side gives less control if the weak side gives out. Assistance should be on the affected side to better prevent falls and provide stabilization.
B. Hook an arm under the client's left arm: This is unsafe and risks injury to both the client and nurse. It provides poor leverage, may dislocate the shoulder, and does not allow controlled support during ambulation.
C. Use a gait belt standing on affected side: This is the safest technique. Standing on the affected side offers direct support and balance while the gait belt allows secure, ergonomic assistance during movement.
D. Hold the gait belt with palms facing down: Gait belts should be held with palms facing up, which provides a more secure grip and better control if the client loses balance during ambulation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Duration of sensation: This helps to determine if the symptoms are acute, intermittent, or continuous, which can provide clues about the severity of nerve compression or irritation. Changes in duration, frequency, or intensity can indicate worsening nerve impingement or the development of a new neurological deficit requiring immediate attention.
B. Precipitous activity: While it's useful to know what activity triggered the symptoms, this is secondary to understanding the timeline and progression of neurological signs, which carry more urgency.
C. Time of last analgesic: Pain control is important, but the priority is evaluating potential nerve compromise. Numbness and tingling may reflect compression or damage that cannot be addressed by analgesia alone.
D. Gait coordination: Assessing gait coordination is important to evaluate the functional impact of the neurological symptoms, which could indicate more severe nerve compression affecting motor pathways. However, it is an assessment of a motor function. The client is describing sensory symptoms.
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