The nurse admits a client with sepsis that has developed cool ecchymotic fingertips and toes. The healthcare provider (HCP) determines that the client has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which findings support the pathophysiology of DIC?
Hematuria and hemoptysis.
Polyuria and productive cough.
Glucosuria and lethargy.
Frothy urine and anorexia.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: DIC involves widespread microthrombi formation and clotting factor consumption, leading to bleeding tendencies. Hematuria and hemoptysis reflect microvascular bleeding from depleted coagulation factors, common in sepsis-induced DIC. These findings align with DIC’s pathophysiology, where simultaneous clotting and hemorrhage occur, causing ecchymotic extremities, as seen in this client.
Choice B reason: Polyuria and productive cough are unrelated to DIC. Polyuria suggests renal or endocrine issues, and productive cough indicates respiratory infection. DIC causes bleeding and clotting abnormalities, not these symptoms. These findings do not support the pathophysiology of sepsis-induced DIC, which manifests as hemorrhagic tendencies like hematuria.
Choice C reason: Glucosuria and lethargy suggest diabetes or metabolic issues, not DIC. DIC involves coagulopathy, leading to bleeding or thrombosis, not glucose excretion or fatigue alone. These symptoms are unrelated to the microthrombi and bleeding diathesis of DIC, making them inconsistent with the client’s ecchymotic presentation.
Choice D reason: Frothy urine indicates proteinuria or renal disease, and anorexia is nonspecific. Neither directly relates to DIC’s coagulopathy, which causes bleeding (e.g., hematuria) due to clotting factor depletion. These findings do not support DIC’s pathophysiology, as they lack connection to the hemorrhagic or thrombotic features seen in
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Decreased red blood cell count indicates anemia, which may cause fatigue or exacerbate ischemia but is not a direct marker of atherosclerosis. Angina results from arterial plaque buildup, driven by elevated LDL cholesterol. Low RBCs do not contribute to plaque formation, making this inconsistent with the diagnosis.
Choice B reason: Elevated LDL cholesterol is a primary risk factor for atherosclerosis, as it deposits in arterial walls, forming plaques that narrow coronary arteries, causing angina. In overweight smokers with stress, high LDL is a key driver of cardiovascular disease, directly supporting the pathophysiology of angina, per evidence-based lipid guidelines.
Choice C reason: Decreased triglycerides are not associated with atherosclerosis, which is driven by high LDL and low HDL. Triglycerides contribute to cardiovascular risk when elevated, but low levels do not cause angina. Elevated LDL is the critical lipid abnormality in this client’s angina due to coronary artery narrowing.
Choice D reason: Increased HDL cholesterol is protective against atherosclerosis, as it removes cholesterol from arteries, reducing plaque formation. Angina is associated with low HDL and high LDL. High HDL would mitigate, not cause, the client’s condition, making this inconsistent with the diagnosis of atherosclerosis-induced angina.
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system attacks synovial joints, causing inflammation and destruction. This altered immune response, driven by autoantibodies like rheumatoid factor, leads to chronic joint damage, aligning with diseases involving immune dysregulation, per rheumatology evidence.
Choice B reason: Emphysema, a COPD subtype, results from alveolar destruction due to smoking or environmental exposures, not immune dysregulation. While inflammation occurs, it is not primarily autoimmune. Emphysema’s pathophysiology involves protease imbalance, not altered immunity, making it incorrect for diseases related to immune system alterations.
Choice C reason: Addison disease involves adrenal insufficiency, often autoimmune, but primarily affects hormone production, not immune system activity. The immune attack on adrenal glands is a cause, not the ongoing disease process. This makes it less directly related to altered immunity compared to RA, T1DM, or GBS.
Choice D reason: Type 1 diabetes mellitus is an autoimmune condition where the immune system destroys pancreatic beta cells, leading to insulin deficiency. This immune-mediated attack, involving T-cells and autoantibodies, directly reflects altered immunity, making it a key example of an immune-related disease, per endocrinology evidence.
Choice E reason: Guillain-Barré syndrome is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system attacks peripheral nerves, causing demyelination and weakness. This post-infectious immune dysregulation, often triggered by molecular mimicry, directly involves altered immunity, aligning with the pathophysiology of immune-related diseases, per neurological evidence.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.