The nurse is caring for a client suffering from an acute asthma exacerbation. Which pathology occurs with an asthma exacerbation?

Recurring spasms of the airways accompanied by edema and mucus production.

Acute inflammation in which lung airways become blocked with thick exudates.

Chronic inflammation of the bronchi and/or trachea caused by infection.

Reduced surface area of the lungs caused by rupture or other damage to the alveoli.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Acute asthma exacerbations involve bronchospasms, airway edema, and excessive mucus production, narrowing airways and causing wheezing and dyspnea. These reversible inflammatory responses are triggered by allergens or irritants, aligning with asthma’s pathophysiology. This accurately describes the acute obstructive process, per respiratory medicine evidence.

Choice B reason: Thick exudates blocking airways are characteristic of conditions like pneumonia, not asthma. Asthma involves bronchospasms, edema, and mucus, not dense exudate. This choice misrepresents asthma’s acute inflammatory process, which is reversible and driven by smooth muscle contraction and mucosal swelling, making it incorrect.

Choice C reason: Chronic inflammation of the bronchi/trachea from infection suggests chronic bronchitis or tracheitis, not asthma. Asthma exacerbations are acute, triggered by non-infectious stimuli, causing spasms and edema. This chronic infectious process does not align with asthma’s reversible, allergic pathophysiology, making it an incorrect description.

Choice D reason: Reduced lung surface area from alveolar damage occurs in emphysema, not asthma. Asthma affects airways via spasms and inflammation, not alveoli. This choice describes a different obstructive disease, unrelated to asthma’s acute, reversible airway pathology, making it incorrect for an exacerbation’s pathophysiological mechanism.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Inflammation may occur in prostatitis, not typically in BPH. BPH causes urinary retention via physical obstruction from gland enlargement, not spasms. Inflammation is not the primary mechanism, making this incorrect for explaining why BPH leads to retention in the client’s urinary symptoms.

Choice B reason: Abnormal growth in BPH does not cause loss of bladder muscle. The enlarged prostate compresses the urethra, obstructing urine flow. Bladder muscle may weaken over time from chronic obstruction, but this is secondary, making this incorrect for the primary cause of urinary retention.

Choice C reason: Nerve compression is not a primary BPH mechanism. BPH causes retention by mechanically obstructing the urethra, not by impairing bladder sensation. Sensory changes may occur in neurological conditions, but in BPH, physical compression is the cause, making this incorrect for the client’s retention.

Choice D reason: BPH causes the prostate to enlarge, compressing the urethra and obstructing urine flow, leading to urinary retention. This mechanical blockage is the primary pathophysiological mechanism, causing symptoms like hesitancy or incomplete voiding. This explanation aligns with urological evidence, accurately addressing the client’s condition.

A. Had a cerebrovascular hemorrhage 2 months ago. B. Treats type 2 diabetes with an oral hypoglycemic agent. C. Client’s current age is 65 and the father died of a myocardial infarction (MI) at 55. D. Reports being intolerant to medications containing aspirin.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: A history of cerebrovascular hemorrhage is an absolute contraindication for tPA, as it increases the risk of recurrent bleeding. tPA’s thrombolytic action can exacerbate intracranial hemorrhage, posing a life-threatening risk. This recent event (2 months ago) prohibits tPA use, per cardiology and stroke guidelines.

Choice B reason: Type 2 diabetes treated with oral hypoglycemics is not a contraindication for tPA. Diabetes may increase cardiovascular risk, but it does not affect tPA’s bleeding risk. This history is irrelevant to tPA administration safety, making it incorrect for contraindicating thrombolytic therapy in AMI.

Choice C reason: Age 65 and a family history of MI at 55 are risk factors for AMI but not contraindications for tPA. tPA is safe within age limits, and family history does not increase bleeding risk. This choice is incorrect, as these factors do not preclude thrombolytic therapy.

Choice D reason: Aspirin intolerance is not a contraindication for tPA, though aspirin is often co-administered. tPA’s bleeding risk is unrelated to aspirin sensitivity. Alternative antiplatelets can be used if needed, making this incorrect, as intolerance does not prohibit tPA use in acute myocardial infarction.

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The nurse is caring for a client suffering from an acute asthma exacerbation. Which pathology occurs with an asthma exacerbation?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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