The nurse assesses a client who reports chronic pain with chewing. The nurse should assess which body area to investigate the client's problem further?
glenohumeral joint
sternoclavicular joint
temporomandibular joint
acromioclavicular joint
The Correct Answer is C
A. Glenohumeral joint: The glenohumeral joint is the shoulder joint. Pain with chewing is unlikely to be related to issues with the shoulder joint, as this joint is not involved in the chewing process.
B. Sternoclavicular joint: The sternoclavicular joint is where the clavicle meets the sternum. Problems here might affect shoulder and chest movement, but they would not typically cause pain specifically related to chewing.
C. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ): The TMJ is directly involved in the movement of the jaw, which is essential for chewing. Chronic pain during chewing often indicates a problem with the TMJ, such as TMJ disorder, which can cause pain, clicking, and other issues when moving the jaw.
D. Acromioclavicular joint: The acromioclavicular joint is located at the top of the shoulder where the clavicle meets the acromion of the scapula. This joint primarily affects shoulder movement, not chewing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) 20 represents the distance a normal eye can read and 40 represents the distance your eye read the chart: This option incorrectly reverses the interpretation of the numbers. The correct interpretation is that the first number represents the distance at which the patient is reading the chart, and the second number represents the distance at which a person with normal vision would be able to read the same line.
B) 20 represents the distance you are placed from the chart and 40 represents the distance a normal eye read the chart: This is the correct interpretation of visual acuity. In the Snellen chart system, the first number (20) represents the distance (in feet) from which the patient is viewing the chart, while the second number (40) represents the distance at which a person with normal vision (20/20) would be able to read the same line of the chart.
C) 20 represents the distance you are placed from the chart and 40 represents the distance your eye read the chart: This option is incorrect because it does not accurately describe what the numbers mean. The second number represents the distance at which normal vision can read the line, not the distance the patient’s eye read the chart.
D) 40 represents the distance you are placed from the chart and 20 represents the distance normal eye read the chart: This option incorrectly assigns the numbers. The distance of 20 feet is standard for testing vision, and 40 feet is the benchmark for normal vision. The correct understanding is that 20 is the test distance, and 40 is the comparison distance for normal vision.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A) Peripheral Pulses: Peripheral pulses are assessed by palpating the pulse points, such as the radial or dorsalis pedis pulse, to evaluate the strength and regularity of the pulse. This assessment is not related to pressing the skin and observing it for indentation.
B) Skin Temperature: Skin temperature is assessed by palpating the skin with the back of the hand or fingers to detect warmth or coolness. This method does not involve pressing with the thumb and assessing for indentation.
C) Pitting Edema: Pitting edema is assessed by applying pressure to the skin over a bony area, such as the tibia or ankle, and then observing the skin's response after releasing the pressure. The presence of a pit or indentation that remains after the pressure is removed indicates pitting edema, which is a sign of fluid retention.
D) Capillary Refill: Capillary refill is assessed by pressing down on the nail bed or the skin and then observing how quickly the color returns after releasing the pressure. This test measures peripheral circulation and is different from the assessment for pitting edema.
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