The nurse at the antepartal clinic reviews four patients’ charts.
Which patient is at increased risk for an ectopic pregnancy?
A 23-year-old primigravida with a history of endometriosis.
A 40-year-old multigravida with a history of condyloma acuminata.
A 27-year-old primigravida with a bicornuate uterus.
A 36-year-old multigravida who has had two previous cesarean deliveries.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A. A 23-year-old primigravida with a history of endometriosis.Endometriosis is a condition where the tissue that normally lines the uterus grows outside of it, sometimes affecting the fallopian tubes. This can cause scarring and damage to the tubes, which can increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy.
Choice B is wrong because condyloma acuminata, also known as genital warts, are caused by human papillomavirus (HPV) infection. HPV infection does not directly increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy, although it may be associated with other sexually transmitted infections (STIs) that can cause pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which is a risk factor.
Choice C is wrong because a bicornuate uterus is a congenital anomaly where the uterus has two horns or chambers instead of one. This does not affect the fallopian tubes or the implantation of the fertilized egg in the uterus.
Choice D is wrong because previous cesarean deliveries do not increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy. However, previous tubal surgery, such as tubal ligation or salpingectomy, can damage the fallopian tubes and increase the risk.
Other risk factors for ectopic pregnancy include previous ectopic pregnancy, smoking, age older than 35 years, history of infertility, and use of assisted reproductive technology.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Cesarean delivery.A pregnant patient with genital herpes is at higher risk of transmitting the infection to the baby during vaginal delivery, especially if there is an active outbreak near the time of birth.This can cause serious complications for the baby, such as brain damage, eye problems, or even death.Therefore, a cesarean delivery is recommended to avoid contact between the baby and the genital lesions.
Choice A is wrong because forceps-assisted second stage of labor is not a complication of genital herpes.
It is a method of assisted delivery that may be used for various reasons, such as fetal distress, maternal exhaustion, or abnormal presentation.
Choice B is wrong because precipitous delivery, which means a very fast labor and delivery, is not a complication of genital herpes.
It may be caused by factors such as multiparity, strong contractions, or previous rapid deliveries.
Choice C is wrong because prolonged first phase of labor, which means a slow dilation of the cervix, is not a complication of genital herpes.
It may be caused by factors such as ineffective contractions, large fetal size, or malposition.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C.Choice C is wrong because having more than three full-term pregnancies does not affect the suitability of using a copper IUD as a birth control method.Copper IUDs are long-term, reversible contraceptives that can be used by premenopausal women of all ages, including those who have never been pregnant or who have had multiple pregnancies.
Choice A is correct because a copper IUD can be inserted anytime during a normal menstrual cycle, or up to eight weeks after childbirth.
Choice B is correct because a copper IUD may cause heavier and longer periods, as well as more cramping.
Choice D is correct because a copper IUD works by creating an inflammatory response in the uterus that prevents sperm from reaching the egg and fertilizing it, and also prevents a fertilized egg from implanting in the uterine wall.
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