On her first visit, a patient had a baseline hemoglobin of 13.0 gm and a hematocrit of 42.9%.She has been taking ferrous sulfate tablets and eating an iron-rich diet.She returned to the clinic at 30 weeks gestation and has a hemoglobin of 11.0 gm and a hematocrit of 36.3%.She is concerned and confused about why these lab values have gone down.
In responding, which physiological change during pregnancy should the nurse describe to the patient?
The increase in the level of placental hormones tends to result in chelation of maternal iron.
Fetal demand for iron is greater than the maternal intake.
During the latter half of pregnancy, the maternal intestinal absorption of iron is decreased.
The increase in maternal blood volume is greater than the increase in maternal red blood cells.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is choice D. The increase in maternal blood volume is greater than the increase in maternal red blood cells.
This means that the concentration of hemoglobin and hematocrit in the blood is diluted by the extra fluid.
This is a normal physiological adaptation to pregnancy and does not indicate iron deficiency anemia.
Choice A is wrong because placental hormones do not chelate maternal iron.
Chelation is a process of binding metal ions to organic molecules, which is not relevant to this question.
Choice B is wrong because fetal demand for iron is not greater than maternal intake.
The mother can meet the iron needs of the fetus by increasing her dietary intake and taking iron supplements.
Choice C is wrong because maternal intestinal absorption of iron is not decreased during pregnancy.
In fact, it may be increased due to higher levels of estrogen and progesterone.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Massaging the uterus helps it contract and prevent excessive bleeding after delivery.Uterine atony is a condition where the uterus does not contract enough to clamp the blood vessels that supply the placenta, leading to postpartum hemorrhage.Uterine massage is one of the interventions to treat uterine atony and restore uterine tone.
Choice A is wrong because having the client void frequently does not directly affect the uterine contraction.However, a full bladder can interfere with uterine contraction and cause displacement of the uterus, so it is important to monitor the bladder status and empty it as needed.
Choice C is wrong because having the client in a side-lying position for comfort does not help with uterine contraction.However, this position may be beneficial for other reasons, such as reducing edema and pain in the perineal area.
Choice D is wrong because keeping the patient on strict bed rest for 24 hours to avoid stress on the uterus does not help with uterine contraction.In fact, early ambulation after delivery can help prevent thromboembolic complications and promote recovery.
Normal ranges for postpartum blood loss are less than 500 mL for vaginal delivery and less than 1000 mL for cesarean delivery.Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as blood loss greater than or equal to 1000 mL or blood loss accompanied by signs or symptoms of hypovolemia within 24 hours after birth.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is because urine toxicology studies can detect the presence of cocaine and other drugs in the body of the pregnant woman and her unborn baby.Cocaine use during pregnancy can have serious consequences for both the mother and the baby, such as high blood pressure, premature labor, low birth weight, and developmental problems.
Choice A is wrong because urine estriol levels are used to measure the activity of the placenta and the fetal adrenal glands.They are not related to cocaine use.
Choice B is wrong because serum bilirubin levels are used to assess the liver function and the risk of jaundice in newborns.They are not related to cocaine use.
Choice D is wrong because lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio is used to evaluate the fetal lung maturity and the risk of respiratory distress syndrome.It is not related to cocaine use.
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