The nurse cares for a client diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes and Raynaud’s disease. The orders include continuous pulse oximetry monitoring. Which situation requires an intervention by the nurse?

The nurse discusses the pulse oximetry findings with the client.

The client has the pulse oximeter and automatic blood pressure cuff on the same arm.

The pulse oximeter is placed on the ring finger of the client’s right hand.

The nurse instructs nursing assistive personnel to obtain a pulse oximetry reading.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Discussing pulse oximetry findings with the client is appropriate and promotes understanding, not requiring intervention. A blood pressure cuff on the same arm affects readings, making this incorrect, as it’s a correct nursing action for the client with Raynaud’s and diabetes.

Choice B reason: A blood pressure cuff on the same arm as the pulse oximeter disrupts blood flow, causing inaccurate readings, especially in Raynaud’s disease. This requires intervention, aligning with monitoring accuracy standards, making it the correct situation for the nurse to address immediately.

Choice C reason: Placing the pulse oximeter on the ring finger is appropriate, avoiding Raynaud’s-affected areas. A cuff on the same arm is problematic, making this incorrect, as it’s a standard placement not requiring intervention in the client’s monitoring setup.

Choice D reason: Instructing assistive personnel to obtain readings is acceptable if within their scope. A cuff on the same arm affects accuracy, making this incorrect, as it’s not an issue compared to the intervention needed for the pulse oximeter placement error.

Choice E reason: An LPN recording the pulse from the oximeter is within their role and not problematic. A cuff on the same arm requires intervention, making this incorrect, as it’s a correct action unlike the inaccurate monitoring setup needing nurse correction.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Morphine for pain is important but secondary to assessing airway and breathing in burns, as chest involvement risks respiratory compromise. Listening to breath sounds ensures stability, making this incorrect, as it’s less urgent than the nurse’s priority of respiratory assessment.

Choice B reason: Tetanus immunization prevents infection but is not urgent in acute burn management. Breath sounds assess respiratory status, critical with chest burns, making this incorrect, as it’s secondary to the nurse’s first action of ensuring airway and breathing stability.

Choice C reason: Coughing and deep breathing support respiratory function but assume stable breathing. Listening to breath sounds confirms airway patency in chest burns, making this incorrect, as it’s less immediate than the nurse’s priority of assessing respiratory status first.

Choice D reason: Listening to breath sounds is the first action to assess for respiratory compromise in deep partial thickness chest burns, as restlessness may indicate hypoxia. This aligns with burn care priorities, making it the correct action for the nurse to take initially.

A. This is a normal, expected event. B. The client is experiencing early signs of ischemic bowel. C. The client should not have the nasogastric tube removed. D. This indicates inadequate preoperative bowel preparation.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Malodorous flatus 2 days post-colostomy is normal, indicating bowel function resumption. This aligns with postoperative colostomy expectations, making it the correct interpretation by the nurse, as flatus is an expected milestone in the client’s recovery process.

Choice B reason: Ischemic bowel causes pain, fever, or absent output, not just malodorous flatus, which is normal post-colostomy. This is incorrect, as it misinterprets a typical finding as a serious complication in the nurse’s assessment of the client’s stoma.

Choice C reason: Flatus doesn’t indicate the need for a nasogastric tube, which is used for obstruction or ileus. Normal flatus is expected, making this incorrect, as it wrongly suggests intervention for a typical post-colostomy finding in the nurse’s evaluation.

Choice D reason: Malodorous flatus is unrelated to preoperative bowel preparation; it’s a normal post-colostomy event. This is incorrect, as it misattributes a standard recovery sign to surgical preparation, unlike the nurse’s correct interpretation of expected bowel function.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

The nurse cares for a client diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes and Raynaud’s disease. The orders include continuous pulse oximetry monitoring. Which situation requires an intervention by the nurse?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse cares for a client in the emergency department diagnosed with deep partial thickness burns of the arms and chest. The nurse notes that the client is very restless and anxious. Which action should the nurse take FIRST?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client had a new colostomy created 2 days earlier and is beginning to pass malodorous flatus from the stoma. What is the correct interpretation by the nurse?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse notes that a client’s T-tube has drained 750 mL of green-brown drainage since the surgery. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

The client newly diagnosed with chronic kidney disease recently has begun hemodialysis. Knowing that the client is at risk for disequilibrium syndrome, the nurse would assess the client during dialysis for which associated manifestations?

The newly licensed RN overhears two nurses talking in the elevator about a client who will lose her leg because of negligence of the staff. Which action by the newly licensed RN would be implemented first?

A child has a 2-day history of vomiting, hypoactive bowel sounds, and an irregular pulse. Electrolyte values are sodium, 130 mEq/L; potassium, 3.3 mEq/L; calcium, 9.5 mg/dL; and HCO3, 30 mEq/L. Which of the following imbalances is the child most likely to have? (Select all that apply)

During transport to the operating room for mitral valve replacement, a patient with a signed consent form says that she does not want to go through with the surgery and asks to be returned to her room. What is the best response from the nurse?

The nurse in the emergency department (ED) is assessing a client with anaphylactic shock. Which of the following findings would support a diagnosis of anaphylactic shock? (Select all that apply)

You are working on a busy unit and need to delegate tasks to the LPN and M