The nurse cares for a client with 0.9% sodium chloride infusing at 125 mL/h. 2 hours after the infusion was started, the client’s central venous pressure (CVP) reading is 16 cm H2O. It is MOST important for the nurse to take which action?

Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV.

Decrease the rate of the IV fluids and notify the health care provider.

Document the CVP reading in the chart.

Check the client’s urine specific gravity.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Administering furosemide without a provider’s order is outside nursing scope and risks harm. Decreasing IV fluids addresses elevated CVP, making this incorrect, as it bypasses protocol compared to the nurse’s priority of adjusting fluids and consulting the provider.

Choice B reason: A CVP of 16 cm H2O suggests fluid overload; decreasing IV fluids and notifying the provider prevents worsening heart failure. This aligns with hemodynamic monitoring protocols, making it the correct action for the nurse to take to address the client’s elevated CVP.

Choice C reason: Documenting the CVP is necessary but doesn’t address the urgent fluid overload indicated by 16 cm H2O. Decreasing fluids is proactive, making this incorrect, as it delays intervention compared to the nurse’s priority of managing the client’s high CVP.

Choice D reason: Checking urine specific gravity assesses hydration but is less urgent than addressing elevated CVP with fluid adjustment. Notifying the provider takes precedence, making this incorrect, as it’s secondary to the nurse’s action to manage fluid overload immediately.

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","E","G","H"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: Tea, especially caffeinated, relaxes the lower esophageal sphincter, worsening GERD symptoms. Avoiding it shows understanding, making this a correct food the nurse would expect the client to avoid based on dietary education to prevent GERD exacerbation.

Choice B reason: Beer, an alcoholic beverage, irritates the esophagus and relaxes the sphincter, triggering GERD symptoms. Avoiding it reflects correct understanding, making this a correct food the nurse would include in teaching for the client to prevent GERD flare-ups.

Choice C reason: Cheese, while high-fat, is less likely to trigger GERD than alcohol or chocolate. Oatmeal is GERD-friendly, making this incorrect, as it’s not a primary trigger compared to the nurse’s teaching on foods to avoid for GERD symptom management.

Choice D reason: Oatmeal is a bland, high-fiber food that soothes GERD symptoms, not exacerbating them. Avoiding chocolate is correct, making this incorrect, as it’s a beneficial food, unlike the triggers the nurse teaches the client to avoid in GERD management.

Choice E reason: Chocolate contains caffeine and fat, relaxing the esophageal sphincter and worsening GERD. Avoiding it shows understanding, making this a correct food the nurse would expect the client to avoid to prevent symptom exacerbation based on GERD dietary teaching.

Choice F reason: Sweet potatoes are low-fat and non-irritating, not triggering GERD symptoms. Avoiding alcohol is correct, making this incorrect, as it’s a safe food, unlike the nurse’s teaching on foods the client should avoid to manage GERD effectively.

Choice G reason: Alcohol, including beer, relaxes the esophageal sphincter and irritates the mucosa, exacerbating GERD. Avoiding it reflects understanding, making this a correct food the nurse would include in teaching for the client to prevent GERD symptom flare-ups.

Choice H reason: French fries, high in fat, delay gastric emptying and worsen GERD symptoms. Avoiding them shows understanding, making this a correct food the nurse would expect the client to avoid based on dietary education to manage GERD effectively.

A. A 45-year-old with a nasogastric (NG) tube who has dry oral mucosa and reports feeling very thirsty. B. A 57-year-old receiving IV diuretics whose blood pressure is 88/52 mm Hg. C. A 67-year-old with nausea and vomiting who reports abdominal cramps. D. A 77-year-old with normal saline infusing at 150 mL/hr with an average hourly urine output.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Dry mucosa and thirst suggest dehydration, but hypotension (88/52) is more life-threatening. Low blood pressure requires immediate assessment, making this incorrect, as it’s less urgent than the nurse’s priority to address the client with critical hemodynamic instability.

Choice B reason: A blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg in a client on IV diuretics indicates severe hypotension, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate assessment. This aligns with prioritization in acute care, making it the correct client for the nurse to assess first post-shift report.

Choice C reason: Nausea, vomiting, and cramps are concerning but less urgent than hypotension (88/52), which risks organ perfusion. Low blood pressure is critical, making this incorrect, as it’s secondary to the nurse’s priority of assessing the client with unstable vitals.

Choice D reason: Normal saline at 150 mL/hr with adequate urine output is stable. Hypotension (88/52) is more critical, making this incorrect, as it’s a lower priority compared to the nurse’s need to assess the client with life-threatening low blood pressure first.

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The nurse cares for a client with 0.9% sodium chloride infusing at 125 mL/h. 2 hours after the infusion was started, the client’s central venous pressure (CVP) reading is 16 cm H2O. It is MOST important for the nurse to take which action?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is providing dietary education to a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). The nurse indicates that the client understands the teaching if the client states a plan to avoid which foods to prevent symptom exacerbation? (Select all that apply)

Correct Answer is ["A","B","E","G","H"]

Explanation

After receiving the change-of-shift report, which client does the nurse assess first?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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