The nurse enters her client’s room and finds the client complaining pf dyspnea, chest pain and syncope. The nurse assesses the client and notes the following findings. The client is pale and diaphoretic with a blood pressure of 90/60mmHg and respirations of 33. The client is anxious and fearing death. Which action should the nurse take first?
Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
Administer prescribed pain medications
Administer NS IV fluid
Ask the provider for a dopamine prescription
The Correct Answer is A
A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula: The client's symptoms of dyspnea, chest pain, syncope, and hypotension suggest a possible acute cardiovascular event, such as a myocardial infarction (MI) or pulmonary embolism (PE). Administering oxygen should be the priority to improve oxygenation and prevent hypoxia, which could exacerbate the client's symptoms and further compromise cardiac function.
B. Administer prescribed pain medications. Pain relief may be necessary, but stabilizing oxygen levels is the priority.
C. Administer NS IV fluid. Fluid administration may be helpful, but oxygenation is more critical in this situation to address the potential underlying respiratory or cardiac issue.
D. Ask the provider for a dopamine prescription. While dopamine may be used in cases of shock, the immediate action should be to ensure the client is adequately oxygenated.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Intracranial pressure (ICP) is now 15: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure (ICP). The intended effect of the medication is to lower ICP. A decrease in ICP to 15 mmHg is within the normal range and indicates the medication has worked effectively.
B. The patient voids 250 mL over 2 hours is incorrect. While mannitol promotes diuresis, the amount of urine output alone does not directly indicate a reduction in ICP. The goal is to lower ICP, which is best assessed by measuring the ICP itself.
C. The patient's pupils are dilated and sluggish is incorrect. Dilated and sluggish pupils can be a sign of increased ICP, not a response to effective treatment.
D. Seizure behavior is absent is incorrect. While mannitol can help reduce ICP and potentially prevent seizures, the absence of seizure behavior is not a direct indicator of the medication's effect on ICP.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Deficits in the right visual field: This would be associated with a left-sided stroke, as the right hemisphere controls the left visual field.
B. Motor retardation: This is not a specific sign of right hemisphere stroke. It might be seen with other types of strokes.
C. Poor impulse control: A right hemisphere stroke may cause behavioral changes, including impulsivity, poor judgment, and difficulty in regulating emotions.
D. Unable to discriminate words and letters: This would suggest aphasia, which is typically associated with left hemisphere damage, as the left hemisphere controls language.
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