The nurse has documented the following wound assessment: “Shallow, open, reddened ulcer with no drainage on the center of the right heel.” What stage is the wound?
Stage 1
Stage 2
Stage 3
Stage 4
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Stage 1 is a wound that involves only the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin. It appears as a nonblanchable redness, warmth, or hardness on intact skin. It does not have any breakage or ulceration of the skin.
Choice B reason: Stage 2 is a wound that involves the epidermis and the dermis, the second layer of the skin. It appears as a shallow, open, reddened ulcer with a partialthickness loss of skin. It may have some serous exudate, but no slough or eschar. It may also present as a blister or abrasion.
Choice C reason: Stage 3 is a wound that involves the epidermis, the dermis, and the subcutaneous tissue, the third layer of the skin. It appears as a deep, open, reddened ulcer with a fullthickness loss of skin. It may have some slough or eschar, but no exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. It may also have tunneling or undermining of the wound edges.
Choice D reason: Stage 4 is a wound that involves the epidermis, the dermis, the subcutaneous tissue, and the underlying structures, such as bone, tendon, or muscle. It appears as a deep, open, reddened ulcer with a fullthickness loss of skin and tissue. It has exposed bone, tendon, or muscle, which may be visible or palpable. It may also have slough, eschar, necrosis, infection, or osteomyelitis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is not the priority assessment because peripheral edema is not a lifethreatening complication of immobility. Peripheral edema is the swelling of the lower extremities due to fluid accumulation. It can be caused by various factors, such as venous insufficiency, heart failure, kidney disease, or medication side effects. The nurse should monitor the client's fluid status and provide elevation and compression therapy as needed.
Choice B reason: This is the priority assessment because lung sounds can indicate the presence of respiratory complications, such as pneumonia or atelectasis, which are common and serious consequences of immobility. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that causes inflammation, mucus production, and impaired gas exchange. Atelectasis is the collapse of alveoli, which are the tiny air sacs in the lungs that facilitate oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange. The nurse should auscultate the client's lung sounds regularly and report any abnormal findings, such as crackles, wheezes, or diminished breath sounds. The nurse should also encourage the client to cough, deep breathe, and use incentive spirometry to prevent or treat respiratory problems.
Choice C reason: This is not the priority assessment because bowel sounds can reflect the status of the gastrointestinal system, which is not directly affected by immobility. Bowel sounds are the noises produced by the movement of food and gas through the intestines. They can vary in frequency and intensity depending on the client's diet, activity, and medications. The nurse should auscultate the client's bowel sounds and assess for any signs of constipation, diarrhea, or obstruction. The nurse should also promote the client's bowel function by providing adequate hydration, fiber, and laxatives as ordered.
Choice D reason: This is not the priority assessment because skin turgor can indicate the level of hydration, which is not a primary concern of immobility. Skin turgor is the elasticity of the skin that allows it to return to its normal shape after being pinched or pulled. It can be affected by factors such as age, weight loss, dehydration, or edema. The nurse should assess the client's skin turgor and provide adequate fluids and electrolytes as needed. The nurse should also pay attention to the client's skin integrity and prevent or treat any pressure ulcers or wounds that may result from immobility.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Providing active range of motion (ROM) is not a treatment that the nurse can perform for a quadriplegic client. Active ROM means that the client moves their own joints without assistance. A quadriplegic client has paralysis of all four limbs and cannot move their joints voluntarily.
Choice B reason: Providing passive range of motion (ROM) is a treatment that the nurse can perform for a quadriplegic client. Passive ROM means that the nurse moves the client's joints through their full range of motion without resistance. This helps prevent joint contracture, which is the loss of joint movement and flexibility due to muscle shortening and stiffness. It also helps maintain joint mobility, which is the ability of the joint to move smoothly and freely.
Choice C reason: Turning the client every 2 hours is not a treatment that the nurse can perform to decrease the risk of joint contracture and promote joint mobility. Turning the client every 2 hours is a preventive measure to avoid pressure ulcers, which are skin injuries caused by prolonged pressure on the skin. It does not directly affect the joint function or movement.
Choice D reason: Administering glucosamine supplements is not a treatment that the nurse can perform to decrease the risk of joint contracture and promote joint mobility. Glucosamine supplements are dietary supplements that may help reduce the pain and inflammation of osteoarthritis, which is a degenerative joint disease that causes the breakdown of the cartilage and bone in the joints. It does not affect the muscle or nerve function or movement.
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